DU LLB Question Paper 2021
Exam Date - 29-10-2021
(Note- The answers have been marked according to the official answer-key.)
Directions: Q. 1-5
Read the passage and answer the following questions.
In short, to give life “is to frame and make a living creature, fashion the parts, and mould and suit them to their uses; and having proportioned and fitted them together, to put into them a living soul.” Parents do not fashion the child and most commonly, do not even intend to create it; they do so as a by‐product of the instinctive desires God has placed in them. In response to Filmer’s claims, Locke states, “They who say the father gives life to children, are so dazzled with the thoughts of monarchy, that they do not, as they ought, remember God, who is ‘the Author and Giver of Life.” Parents have fiduciary responsibility for their children on Locke’s account, but it expires upon their maturity. Parents are obliged to provide for their children ‘‘not as their own workmanship, but the workmanship of their own maker.”
This is why Locke insists that although children are not born in a “state of equality, though they are born to it.” Adults have “a sort of rule and jurisdiction over them when they come into the world, and for some time after; but it is a temporary one.” The bonds of children’s subjection “are like the Swadling Cloths they are wrapt up in, and supported by, in the weakness of their Infancy.” Developing age and reason loosen these bonds, “till at length they drop quite off, and leave a man at his own free disposal.” The power to command ‘‘ends with nonage.” Thereafter, although ‘‘honour and respect, support and defense, and whatsoever gratitude can oblige a man to, for the highest benefits he is naturally capable of, be always due from a son to his parents; yet all this puts no sceptre into the father’s hand, no sovereign power of commanding.” The only legitimate sanction at the parent’s disposal is the power to withhold inheritance, or “to bestow it with a more sparing or liberal hand, according as the behaviour of this or that child hath comported with his will and humor.” Parents are to “inform the mind, and govern the actions of their yet ignorant nonage, till reason shall take its place, and ease them of that trouble.” This treatment of children reflects an inclusive view of the right to make decisions for oneself: the only justifiable basis for paternalism is incapacity.
One reason that Locke’s view of moral equality has had staying power since he wrote is that the obvious secular analogue of his claim that we are all God’s property is that we are nobody’s property. The workmanship model persisted in the western intellectual consciousness long after it was cut loose from its Lockean theological moorings. If we abandon the theology yet still embrace the workmanship ideal as most in the Enlightenment tradition since Locke—be they conservatives, liberals, or radicals—have done, the logic of his argument against Filmer continues to hold. Indeed, it can be extended: parents cannot own children because they do not make them, but by the same token nor can anyone else own them. In this way the egalitarian logic of his argument against Filmer extends beyond their theological disagreements.
1. According to Locke, who is the creator of life?
1. Parents
2. Mother
3. Monarch
4. God
Correct Answer :‐
God
2. Adult’s rule and jurisdiction over children…
A. Is temporary.
B. Is based on infancy of the child.
C. Never ends with nonage.
D. Can be justified as paternalism based on incapacity.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B, C and D
2. A and B only
3. A, B and C only
4. A, B and D only
Correct Answer :‐
A, B and D only
3. The reason that Locke’s theory has survived the test of time is…
A. That we all are God’s property.
B. That we all are nobody’s property.
C. That his theory was secular.
D. That his theory’s secular analogue is accepted by intellectuals.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. B and C only
2. A and C only
3. A, B and D only
4. B and D only
Correct Answer :‐
B and D only
4. “Parents are to “inform the mind, and govern the actions of their yet ignorant nonage, till reason shall take its place, and ease them of that trouble.” Who is having this trouble and what is the trouble?
A. Children, inability to make decisions
B. Parents, informing the child and governing their actions
C. God, fashioning a child
D. Locke, explaining the theory.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. D only
2. C and D only
3. A, B and C only
4. B only
Correct Answer :‐
B only
5. This passage can have its “Title” as…
1. Child is the Father of Man
2. Infancy of Child
3. Theory of Moral Equality
4. Filmer’s Theory
Correct Answer :‐
Theory of Moral Equality
6. Which of the following books is correctly matched to the author?
1. Rabindranath Tagore ‐ The Collector’s Wife
2. Jyotiba Phule ‐ Such A Long Journey
3. Salman Rushdie ‐ A Fine Balance
4. Khushwant Singh‐ Train To Pakistan
Correct Answer :‐
Khushwant Singh‐ Train To Pakistan
7. On August 15, 1947, the cabinet of Independent India consisted of:
A. Bhimrao Ramji Ambdekar as the first Minister of Law.
B. Sardar Vallabhai Patel as the first Minister of Defence.
Which of the above statement(s) is true:
1. Both
2. Neither
3. A only
4. B only
Correct Answer :‐
A only
8. Russian revolution took place in the year ....
1. 1919
2. 1914
3. 1917
4. 1916
Correct Answer :‐
1917
9. Three‐ banded rosefinch has been found recently in the state of
1. Assam
2. Nagaland
3. Arunachal Pradesh
4. Sikkim
Correct Answer :‐
Arunachal Pradesh
10. Financial Inclusion Index is to be released by which of the following body?
1. NITI Aayog
2. Reserve Bank of India
3. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
4. Small Industries Development Bank of India
Correct Answer :‐
Reserve Bank of India
11. Which among the following launched the Online Dispute Resolution Handbook?
1. National Development Council
2. National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
3. NITI Aayog
4. National Women Commission
Correct Answer :‐
NITI Aayog
12. Mental Wellbeing Digital platform MANAS stands for
1. Mental Health and Normalcy Augmentation System
2. Maternal Health and Normalcy Augmentation System
3. Mental Health and Non ‐ Augmentation System
4. None of the these
Correct Answer :‐
Mental Health and Normalcy Augmentation System
13. Who among the following has not won the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2020?
1. Rani Rampal
2. Manika Batra
3. Vinesh Phogat
4. Shikhar Dhawan
Correct Answer :‐
Shikhar Dhawan
14. Who among the following has not won the Arjuna Award 2020?
1. Dutee Chand
2. Ishant Sharma
3. Aditi Ashok
4. Virat Kohli
Correct Answer :‐
Virat Kohli
15. Which of the following is correctly matched?
1. Mizoram ‐ Aizawl
2. Manipur‐ Itanagar
3. Sikkim‐Shillong
4. Meghalaya‐Kohima
Correct Answer :‐
Mizoram ‐ Aizawl
16. ___________ is the classical dance form of Kerala.
1. Bharatanatyam
2. Sattriya
3. Kuchipudi
4. Kathakali
Correct Answer :‐
Kathakali
17. The words “except the State of Jammu and Kashmir” have been omitted in section 1 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 by:
1. Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019
2. Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2018
3. Jammu and Kashmir Organisation Act, 2019
4. Jammu and Kashmir Organisation Act, 2018
Correct Answer :‐
Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019.
18. X goes to a shop for buying an item costing 10 Rs. X gives a 10 Rs. coin to the shopkeeper, but the shopkeeper refuses to sell the item as he does not accept the 10 Rs. coin, arguing that Rs. 10 coin is not accepted in his locality. What legal option X has in this situation?
1. To file a case in the court against the Reserve Bank of India for circulating a coin which is refused by some
2. To file a police complaint against the shopkeeper for refusing a valid legal tender issued by the Reserve Bank of India
3. To file a Public Interest Litigation for declaring 10 Rs. coin as invalid
4. X has no legal option
Correct Answer :‐
To file a police complaint against the shopkeeper for refusing a valid legal tender issued by the Reserve Bank of India
19. A person who helps another person in the commission of an offence is a/an:
1. Abettor
2. Instigator
3. Accomplice
4. Friend
Correct Answer :‐
Accomplice
20. Principle: Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death, or with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death commits the offence of murder.
Facts: A, knowing that Z is labouring under such a disease that a blow is likely to cause his death, strikes him with the intention of causing bodily injury. Z dies in consequence of the blow.
A is liable for:
1. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder as another person with same blow would not have died.
2. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder as it was not certain the blow would kill Z.
3. Culpable homicide amounting to murder as A had intention of causing such bodily injury that is likely to cause death of Z owing to his diesease.
4. Culpable homicide amounting to murder as A had intention of causing Z's death.
Correct Answer :‐
Culpable homicide amounting to murder as A had intention of causing such bodily injury that is likely to cause death of Z owing to his diesease.
21. Who among the following has the power to issue an order under section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
1. Commissioner of Police
2. Director General of Police
3. District Magistrate
4. Public Prosecutor
Correct Answer :‐
District Magistrate
22. A puts jewels into a box belonging to Z, with the intention that they may be found in that box, and that this circumstance may cause Z to be convicted of theft. A has committed the offence of:
1. Lying
2. Giving false evidence
3. Fabricating evidence
4. Cheating
Correct Answer :‐
Fabricating evidence
23. Which among the following offence is committed when a person voluntarily obstructs another so as to prevent the latter in proceeding in any direction in which that person has a right to proceed?
1. Wrongful confinement
2. Criminal use of force
3. Wrongful restraint
4. Assault
Correct Answer :‐
Wrongful restraint
24. Principle: Nothing is an offence by reason of any harm which it may cause to a person for whose benefit it is done in good faith, even without that person's consent, if the circumstances are such that it is impossible for that person to signify consent.
Facts: Z is carried off by a tiger. A fires at the tiger knowing it to be likely that the shot may kill Z, but not intending to kill Z, and in good faith intending Z's benefit. A's ball gives Z a mortal wound.
A has committed:
1. Offence as A's ball has given Z a mortal wound.
2. Offence as he knew the shot may kill Z.
3. Offence as A did not fire for the benefit of Z.
4. No offence as A fired at the tiger in good faith for the benfit of Z and did not intend to kill Z.
Correct Answer :‐
No offence as A fired at the tiger in good faith for the benfit of Z and did not intend to kill Z.
25. In all robbery there is:
1. Only Extortion
2. Either theft or extortion
3. Only Theft
4. Both theft and extortion
Correct Answer :‐
Either theft or extortion
26. Who chaired the First Law Commission that prepared the first draft of the Indian Penal Code?
1. Warren Hastings
2. Thomas Macaulay
3. William Bentinck
4. Charles Hardinge
Correct Answer :‐
Thomas Macaulay
27. Criminal Procedure falls under which of the following lists of the Indian Constitution?
1. State List
2. Union List
3. Concurrent List
4. List of States
Correct Answer :‐
Concurrent List
28. Principle: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person's consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.
Facts: A sees a ring belonging to Z lying on a table in Z's house. Not venturing to misappropriate the ring immediately for fear of search and detection, A hides the ring in a place where it is highly improbable that it will ever be found by Z, with the intention of taking the ring from the hiding place and selling it when the loss is forgotten.
A has committed:
1. Theft at the time of first moving the ring
2. Theft at the time when he comes back to take the ring
3. No offence
4. Criminal misappropriation
Correct Answer :‐
Theft at the time of first moving the ring
29. How many places of sitting the National Green Tribunal has?
1. One
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five
Correct Answer :‐
Five
30. The World Commission on Environment and Development in its report titled ………….defined sustainable development as ‘development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs’. Choose the correct answer from options below.
1. Brundtland Report
2. Our Common Future
3. Agenda 21
4. Caring For the Earth: A Strategy for Sustainable Living
Correct Answer :‐
Our Common Future
31. What is the main objective of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)?
1. Decrease of oxygen
2. Stabilisation of greenhouse gases
3. Increase of greenhouse gases
4. Increase of temperature
Correct Answer :‐
Stabilisation of greenhouse gases
32. World Environmental Day is celebrated on-
1. December 10
2. April 30
3. June 5
4. August 15
Correct Answer :‐
June 5
33. Advocate M.C. Mehta is known in the context of…
1. Public interest environmental litigations
2. Challenging the election of former Prime Minister Mrs Indira Gandhi
3. Challenging the Aadhaar project
4. Challenging the law that prohibited entry of women to Sabarimala temple in Kerala
Correct Answer :‐
Public interest environmental litigations
34. Noise pollution was included in the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 as pollution in the year…..
1. 1981
2. 1987
3. 1982
4. 2000
Correct Answer :‐
1987
35. A person sold a watch for Rs. 1520 and thereby losses 5%. In order to gain 10% she has to sell the watch for…
1. Rs. 1660
2. Rs. 1760
3. Rs. 1600
4. Rs. 1680
Correct Answer :‐
Rs. 1760
36. B is to the North of A, C is to the East of A, E is to the south of C, and D is to the West of A. Then, what is the position of D in relation to C?
1. South
2. South‐West
3. South‐East
4. West
Correct Answer :‐
West
37. Of the three numbers, the first is half of the second and twice the third. The average of these numbers is 42. The smallest of these numbers is
1. 36
2. 18
3. 12
4. 24
Correct Answer :‐
18
38. Four members have to be nominated to a Committee and there are six candidates, A, B, C, D, E and F. The following conditions apply:
A. If A is nominated, then D does not find any place
B. If B is nominated, then either E or F has to be nominated, but not both
C. If C is nominated, then both D and B have to be nominated.
Which one of the following is an acceptable combination?
1. A, B, C and E
2. A, B, C and D
3. B, C, E and F
4. B, C, D and F
Correct Answer :‐
B, C, D and F
[Option ID = 41280]
39. What is the next number in this sequence? 1, 3, 9, 23, 53,
1. 100
2. 115
3. 155
4. 125
Correct Answer :‐
115
40. What is the next number in this sequence? 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, ?
1. 12
2. 13
3. 15
4. 14
Correct Answer :‐
13
41. “Only the party who has suffered damage or injury can approach the court of law”.
The above rule is based on the principle of –
1. Locus standi
2. Modus operandi
3. Quid pro quo
4. Status quo
Correct Answer :‐
Locus standi
42. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy in the Constitution of India?
1. Organization of village panchayats
2. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
3. To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of enquiry and reform
4. Protection of monuments and places and objects of national importance
Correct Answer :‐
To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of enquiry and reform
43. Remedy of restitution of conjugal rights is available under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 to:
1. Husband only
2. Wife only
3. Both wife and husband
4. Divorced wife only
Correct Answer :‐
Both wife and husband
44. Geeta is a Jain and Shyam is a Hindu. Their marriage can be solemnized under:
1. Special Marriage Act, 1954
2. Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
3. Either 1 or 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2.
Correct Answer :‐
Either 1 or 2
45. Which one of the following is not a source of Muslim Law?
1. Quran
2. Sunnat
3. Shruti
4. Ijma
Correct Answer :‐
Shruti
46. In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court of India made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?
1. Lok Prahari v. Union of India
2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India
3. People's Union for Democratic Rights v Union of India
4. People’s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India
Correct Answer :‐
Lok Prahari v. Union of India
47. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India hold that seeking votes in the name of voters’ religion amounts to a corrupt practice?
1. Abhiram Singh v. C.D. Commachen
2. Prabhakaran v. Jayarajan
3. Lily Thomas v. Union of India
4. S. Subramaniam Balaji v. Govt.of Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer :‐
Abhiram Singh v. C.D. Commachen
48. Consider the following and identify the correct statement(s).
A. A President of India is not eligible for re‐election
B. Lok Sabha is the Upper House of Parliament
C. Total number of High Courts in India at present is 25
D. There is no constitutional provision for Deputy Prime‐Minister in the Constitution of India
Choose the correct option(s) from the options given below
1. A and B only
2. B and C only
3. C and D only
4. D only
Correct Answer :‐
C and D only
49. The question regarding disqualification of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha under the X Schedule of the Constitution of India is referred for the decision to:
1. Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha
2. Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
3. The President of India
4. A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha
Correct Answer :‐
A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha
50. The electoral college that elects the President of India comprises of:
1. All members of both the Houses of Parliament
2. Elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and of State Legislative Assemblies of the states
3. All members of both Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies
4. All members of both Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies and Councils
Correct Answer :‐
Elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and of State Legislative Assemblies of the states
51. The usual process of a valid Agreement includes of different stages:
A. Acceptance
B. Agreement
C. Consideration
D. Offer
Arrange the above in sequence and choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. D, C, A, B
2. D, B, A, C
3. D, A, C, B
4. D, B, C, A
Correct Answer :‐
D, A, C, B
52. From whom is an offer addressed to when a product is kept on the shelf of a shop with a price tag attached?
1. Shopkeeper
2. Shop Attendant
3. Manufacturer
4. Customer
Correct Answer :‐
Customer
53. Legal Principle: Any contract made for an unlawful consideration is void in law.
Facts: Mr. X agrees to pay Rs 1000/‐ to Mr. Z for giving false evidence in the Court.
Choose the correct answer:
1. The contract is voidable at the option of Mr. Z due to the risk involved in it.
2. The contract is void due to unlawful consideration.
3. The contract is valid and Mr. Z must perform it.
4. The contract is voidable at the option of Mr. X.
Correct Answer :‐
The contract is void due to unlawful consideration.
54. The active concealment of the facts while entering into a contract is considered:
1. Mistake
2. Misrepresentation
3. Fraud
4. Coercion
Correct Answer :‐
Fraud
55. Mr. X entered into contract with A to deliver 10 kgs of mangoes to Mr. A on 20th July. On 18th July, Mr. X refused to perform the contract. This is an instance of:
1. Abandonment of contract
2. Remission of contract
3. Breach of contract
4. Anticipatory breach of contract
Correct Answer :‐
Anticipatory breach of contract
56. The subsequent changes made in the nature of contract is known as:[Question ID = 10338]
1. Novation
2. Alteration
3. Rescission
4. Repudiation
Correct Answer :‐
Alteration
57. If a company enters into a contract beyond the scope of its object, it becomes:
1. Intra vires
2. Infra vires
3. Ultra vires
4. Ultimo vires
Correct Answer :‐
Ultra vires
58. Which among the following is entitled to be protected through copyright?
1. Facts
2. Ideas
3. Expressions
4. Methods of operation
Correct Answer :‐
Expressions
59. The maximum term of protection for a literary work of an individual author under the Copyright Act, 1957 is-
1. 60 years
2. Lifetime of the author plus 60 years
3. Lifetime of the author plus 70 years
4. 20 years
Correct Answer :‐
Lifetime of the author plus 60 years
60. An invention is protected by
1. Copyright
2. Trademark
3. Industrial design
4. Patent
Correct Answer :‐
Patent
61. Consider the following statements about Intellectual Property (IP) and identify correct statement(s).
A. IP refers to the creations of the mind such as inventions, literary, artistic works
B. IP includes patents and copyright
C. IP does not include trademarks
D. IP does not include industrial designs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A and C only
2. B and D only
3. A only
4. A and B only
Correct Answer :‐
A and B only
62. Match List I with List II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I
2. A ‐ II, B ‐ IV, C ‐ I, D ‐ III
3. A ‐ II, B ‐ I, C ‐ IV, D ‐ III
4. A ‐ II, B ‐ IV, C ‐ III, D ‐ I
Correct Answer :‐
A ‐ II, B ‐ III, C ‐ IV, D ‐ I
63. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : The writing material of a pencil is generally made up of Graphite.
Reason R : Graphite is a good conductor of electricity.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true
Correct Answer :‐
Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
64. Who among the following is called the “Father of Artificial Intelligence”?
1. John McCarthy
2. Charles Babbage
3. John Brunner
4. JP Eckert
Correct Answer :‐
John McCarthy
65. Histology is the study of-
1. Fungi
2. Bones
3. Tissue
4. Virus
Correct Answer :‐
Tissue
66. Read the statements and choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. The chemical name of baking soda is Sodium Carbonate.
B. Baking soda forms alkaline solution with water.
Which of the above statements are true:
1. Both are true
2. Neither is true
3. Only A is true
4. Only B is true
Correct Answer :‐
Only B is true
67. Choose the correctly matched option given below
1. The Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2020: William D. Nordhaus and Paul M. Romer
2. The Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine 2020: Alvin E. Roth and Lloyd S. Shapley
3. The Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences 2020: Paul R. Milgrom and Robert B. Wilson
4. Nobel Prize in Physics 2020 : Abhijit Banerjee and Esther Duflo
Correct Answer :‐
The Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences 2020: Paul R. Milgrom and Robert B. Wilson
68. The Finance Minister presented the Government of India’s Budget for the year 2021‐2022 in the Parliament on:
1. 1 January 2021
2. 1 February 2021
3. 1 March 2021
4. 31 March 2021
Correct Answer :‐
1 February 2021
69. Nora‐al‐ Matroushi is the first female_______ from ______. Choose the correct answer from the options below:
1. Astronaut, Bangladesh
2. Astronaut, UAE
3. Lawyer, Iran
4. Lawyer, Israel
Correct Answer :‐
Astronaut, UAE
70. Read the statements and choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A. The Chairperson of the NITI Aayog is the Prime Minister of India.
B. Minister of Defence is an ex‐officio member of NITI Aayog.
Which of the above statements are true:
1. Both are true
2. Neither is true
3. Only A
4. Only B
Correct Answer :‐
Both are true
71. Office of Economic Adviser (OEA) is an attached office of the:
1. Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance, Government of India
2. Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance, Government of India
3. Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of India
4. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of India
Correct Answer :‐
Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of India
72. Which among the following is the apex body responsible for implementing India’s flagship public health insurance/assurance scheme called “Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana”?
1. All India Institute of Medical Sciences
2. Health department of different states
3. National Health Authority
4. National Health Mission
Correct Answer :‐
National Health Authority
73. The Nobel Peace Prize for 2020 was awarded to………….
1. World Health Organisation
2. World Food Programme
3. United Nations Development Programme
4. United Nations Environment Programme
Correct Answer :‐
World Food Programme
74. The Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine is awarded by…………..
1. The Nobel Assembly at Karolinska Institutet, Stockholm, Sweden
2. The Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences, Stockholm, Sweden
3. The Swedish Academy, Stockholm, Sweden
4. The Committee of the Norwegian Parliament
Correct Answer :‐
The Nobel Assembly at Karolinska Institutet, Stockholm, Sweden
75. Read the statements and choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A. Kangana Ranaut won the best female actor award as per the National Film Awards 2020.
B. She was awarded the National Film Award for her work in Manikarnika and Judgementall Hai Kya.
Which of the above statements are true:
1. Both A and B are true
2. Neither A nor B is true
3. Only A is true
4. Only B is true
Correct Answer :‐
Only A is true
76. Given below are three statements
Statement I: India is a federal polity
Statement II: India’s federal model is different from the federal model of the United States of America
Statement III: Federalism implies horizontal distribution of power between the executive, legislature and the judiciary
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. Statement I is true
2. Statements II and III are true
3. Statements I and II are true
4. Statements I, II and III are true
Correct Answer :‐
Statements I and II are true
77. Read the following statement(s) in the context of the ‘Socially and Educationally Backward Classes Act, 2018’ [The Act] passed by the Maharashtra legislature:
Statement I: The Act has been challenged on the ground that it violates the maximum limit of 50 percent imposed on reservations
Statement II: The limit of 50 percent on reservation is expressly mentioned in the text of the Article 16 of the Constitution of India, 1950
Statement III: According to the Supreme Court judgment of Indra Sawhney v Union of India (1992), the State governments can provide reservation beyond 50 percent in ‘exceptional circumstances’.
Statement IV: The limit of 50 percent on reservation is not mentioned expressly in the text of Article 16 of the Constitution of India, 1950
Which of the above‐mentioned statement(s) is correct:
1. I and II only
2. II, III and IV only
3. I, III and IV only
4. III and IV only
Correct Answer :‐
I, III and IV only
78. Which of the following principles can be located in the Constitution of India?
A. Separation of Power
B. Federalism
C. Parliamentary Sovereignty
D. Secularism
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B and D only
2. A, B and C only
3. B, C and D only
4. C and D only
Correct Answer :‐
A, B and D only
79. According to the text of Articles 19(1)(a) and 19(2) of the Constitution of India, 1950, the State can make laws to restrict freedom of speech and expression on which of the following ground(s):
A. Hate Speech
B. Contempt of Court
C. Defamation
D. Decency or morality
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B and C only
2. A, B and D only
3. B and D only
4. B, C and D only
Correct Answer :‐
B, C and D only
80. Under the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019, persons belonging to Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi or Christian community from certain specified countries are not be treated as illegal migrants. Which are those countries?
A. Afghanistan
B. Bangladesh
C. Pakistan
D. Myanmar
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. C only
2. B and C only
3. A, B and C only
4. A, B, C and D
Correct Answer :‐
A, B and C only
81. Which of the following statement(s) is not true about the role and status of the Governor in India?
A. The Governor is elected by the State Legislature
B. The Governor is appointed by the President of India
C. A person who has completed the age of thirty years can be a Governor.
D. The same person cannot be appointed as the Governor of two or more states
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B and D only
2. A and D only
3. A, C and D only
4. A and C only
Correct Answer :‐
A, C and D only
82. Which among the following states does not have veto power in the United Nations Security Council?
1. The United States of America
2. Germany
3. Russia
4. The United Kingdom
Correct Answer :‐
Germany
83. Which International organization is hearing the case of Gambia v. Myanmar commonly referred to as the Rohingya Genocide case?
1. African Court on Human and Peoples' Rights
2. International Court of Justice
3. International Criminal Court
4. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
Correct Answer :‐
International Court of Justice
84. Which of the following countries has not signed the statute of the International Criminal Court?
1. Germany
2. Brazil
3. Australia
4. China
Correct Answer :‐
China
85. The World Health Organization (WHO) headquarters is situated in...
1. Paris
2. Geneva
3. The Hague
4. Washington DC
Correct Answer :‐
Geneva
86. Which of the following countries is not a member of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) ?
1. Bhutan
2. Bangladesh
3. Myanmar
4. Afghanistan
Correct Answer :‐
Myanmar
87. Which of the following alliance is created to provide collective security?
1. ASEAN
2. NATO
3. SAARC
4. NAFTA
Correct Answer :‐
NATO
88. Which organ of the United Nations has accomplished its mandate and ceased to be operational?
1. Trusteeship Council
2. General Assembly
3. International Court of Justice
4. Economic and Social Council
Correct Answer :‐
Trusteeship Council
89. The recent Supreme Court judgment Nitisha v Union of India (2021) of India held that:
1. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 discriminated between men and women
2. Denial of entry in religious places to women violated right to equality
3. The Indian Army’s policy on the Grant of Permanent Commission to women violated right to equality
4. The offence of adultery under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 violates the right to equality
Correct Answer :‐
The Indian Army’s policy on the Grant of Permanent Commission to women violated right to equality
90. Who was the first chief justice of the Supreme Court of India?
1. H.J. Kania
2. M. Patanjali Sastri
3. Mehr Chand Mahajan
4. Bijan Kumar Mukherjea
Correct Answer :‐
H.J. Kania
91. Who among the following was the shortest serving chief justice of the Supreme Court of India?
1. Kamal Narain Singh
2. Madhukar Hiralal Kania
3. Lalit Mohan Sharma
4. Mohammad Hidayatullah
Correct Answer :‐
Kamal Narain Singh
92. Which among the following schedules of the Constitution of India deals with the distribution of legislative power between the Parliament and state legislatures?
1. Schedule I
2. Schedule III
3. Schedule V
4. Schedule VII
Correct Answer :‐
Schedule VII
93. Article 1 of the Constitution of India defines India as:
1. Federal State
2. Unitary State
3. Union of States
4. Quasi‐Federal State
Correct Answer :‐
Union of States
94. Which among the following is related to the issuing of first compulsory licensing on pharmaceutical patent in India?
1. Bayer v. Natco
2. Novartis v. Union of India & Others
3. Novartis v. Cipla
4. Merk v. Glenmark
Correct Answer :‐
Bayer v. Natco
95. Which of the following is not a nature of ‘torts’?
1. It is a civil wrong
2. It is only a wrong against individual
3. There must be a wrongful act
4. It is mainly developed from common law principles
Correct Answer :‐
It is only a wrong against individual
96. Which of the following statements is not true?
1. Duty under tort is fixed by law
2. Duty under tort is a moral duty
3. Duty under tort is not fixed by the parties
4. Duty under tort is towards the whole world
Correct Answer :‐
Duty under tort is a moral duty [Option ID = 41530]
97. Ms. Shilpa Sheg separated from Mr. Arun Sheg through a decree of divorce. Then after she married to Mr. Kunal Vesth but continued with ‘Sheg’ title of her earlier husband without any malice. Mr. Arun Sheg filed a suit for removal of ‘Sheg’title from the name of Ms. Shilpa Sheg. Continuing the ‘Sheg’ title by Ms. Shilpa is ...
1. A tort because it is a violation of the right of Mr. Arun
2. Not a tort because it is not a violation of the right of Mr. Arun
3. A tort because it is a violation of duty by Ms. Shilpa
4. A crime
Correct Answer :‐
Not a tort because it is not a violation of the right of Mr. Arun
98. Mr. A lets out his crane and driver to Mr. B for carrying B’s business under a contract providing that the driver shall be the servant of Mr. B. The crane driver by his negligence injured a person walking on the road. Who will be liable for the negligence of the driver?
1. Mr. A
2. Mr. B
3. Both Mr A and B
4. Only the Driver
Correct Answer :‐
Mr. A
99. The enforcement of which of the following Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India, 1950, cannot be suspended due to the Proclamation of Emergency on account of war or external aggression?
1. Right to freedom of speech and expression
2. Right to life and personal liberty
3. Right to religion
4. Right to equality
Correct Answer :‐
Right to life and personal liberty
100. Which of the following rights are a part of freedom of speech and expression guaranteed by the Constitution of India, 1950?
A. Exercise of freedom of speech and expression through the medium of internet
B. Right to information
C. Right to broadcast
D. Right to remain silent
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. A, B and C only
2. B, C and D only
3. A, B and D only
4. A, B, C and D
Correct Answer :‐
A, B, C and D
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