DU LLB ENTRANCE EXAM 2021 Q. 76-100

Q. 76 To safeguard the rights of the tribal population, the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas in the states of- 

- 1. Assam, Manipur, Tripura and Mizoram

- 2. Assam, Mizoram, Tripura and Nagaland

- 3. Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram

- 4. Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram

• The Sixth Schedule consists of provisions for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram (Article 244).

• It seeks to safeguard the rights of the tribal population through the formation of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs).

• ADCs are bodies representing a district to which the Constitution has given varying degrees of autonomy within the state legislature.

• The governors of these states are empowered to reorganize boundaries of the tribal areas.

Q. 77 Inter-State Council (ISC) is Chaired by- 

- 1. Home Minister

- 2. Chief Ministers

- 3. Prime Minister

- 4. President

• Article 263 provides that an Inter-State Council (ISC) may be established "if at any time it appears to the President that the public interests would be served by the establishment of a Council".
• It was established in 1990 by a presidential order on the recommendation of Sarkaria Commission. 
• The objective of the Inter-State Council is to discuss or investigate policies, subjects of common interest, and disputes among states.
• The Inter-State Council composes of Prime Minister as its Chairman, Chief Ministers of all the states, CMs of UTs having legislative assemblies, Administrators of the UTs not having legislative assemblies, Six Union Cabinet Ministers including Home Minister, to be nominated by the Prime Minister. 

Q. 78 Which film won the award for 'Best Film' at the 66th Filmfare Awards 2021? 

- 1. Thappad

- 2. Chhapaak

- 3. Angrezi Medium

- 4. Tanhaji: The Unsung Warrior

      66th Filmfare Awards 2021-

• Best Actor in a leading role (Male)- Irrfan
• Best Actor in a leading role (Female)- Taapsee Pannu

Q. 79 The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution consists of how many languages? 

- 1. 14 languages

- 2. 18 languages

- 3. 22 languages

- 4. 24 languages

• The Eighth Schedule consists of 22 languages- Assamese, Bengali, Gujrati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Bodo, Santhali, Maithili and Dogri.
• Out of these 22 languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. 
• Sindhi language was added by the 21st Amendment Act, 1967.
• Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali- 71st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
• Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali- 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.

Q. 80 Which state became the first state in the country to inaugurate State-level ‘e-Lok Adalat’? 

- 1. Punjab

- 2. Gujrat

- 3. Uttar Pradesh

- 4. Chhattisgarh

The Chhattisgarh High Court and the Chhattisgarh State Legal Services Authority organized India's first ever E-Lok Adalat in July 2020, amid the restricted judicial functioning because of the pandemic.

Q. 81 With reference to 'Preamble of the Constitution', which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? 

- 1. It can be amended.

- 2. It is a part of the Constitution.

- 3. Both 1 and 2

- 4. Neither 1 nor 2

• The Supreme Court of India has held that the Preamble can be amended, subject to the condition that no amendment is done to the basic features. 
• The Preamble has been amended only once so far in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which had added three new words - Socialist, Secular and Integrity - to the Preamble. This amendment was held to be valid.
• In the Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973), the Supreme Court of India held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution.

Q. 82 With reference to the “National Legal Services Authority of India (NALSA)”, consider the INCORRECT statement- 

- 1. It was formed in 1989.

- 2. The Chief Justice of India is patron-in-chief of NALSA.

- 3. Its purpose is to provide free legal services to the eligible candidates.

- 4. All of the above statements are correct.

• National Legal Services Authority of India (NALSA) was formed on 9 November 1995 under the authority of the Legal Services Authorities Act 1987. 
• The purpose of the NALSA is to provide free legal services to eligible candidates and to organize Lok Adalat for speedy resolution of cases. 
• The Chief Justice of India is patron-in-chief of NALSA while second senior most judge of Supreme Court of India is the Executive-Chairman. The prime objective of NALSA is speedy disposal of cases and reducing the burden of judiciary.

Q. 83 'Gandhi Peace Prize' for the year 2020 has been conferred on- 

- 1. Arundhathi Subramaniam

- 2. Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman

- 3. Sultan Qaboos bin Said Al Said of Oman

- 4. None of the above.

Gandhi Peace Prize for the year 2020 has been conferred on Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman for his contributions towards social, economic and political transformation through non-violent and other Gandhian methods. 

Q. 84 Under the Patent Act, 1970, a Patent is granted for- 

- 1. 10 years

- 2. 15 years

- 3. 20 years

- 4. 25 years

According to Section 53 of 'The Patents Act, 1970', the term of every patent granted after the commencement of The Patents (Amendment) Act, 2002, shall be twenty years from the date of filing of the application for the patent.

Q. 85 Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Act accorded a special status to the Union Territory of Delhi by designating it as the “National Capital Territory of Delhi”? 

- 1. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act

- 2. 62nd Constitutional Amendment Act

- 3. 63rd Constitutional Amendment Act

- 4. 69th Constitutional Amendment Act

The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of the Constitution of India accorded a special status to the Union Territory of Delhi by designating it as the “National Capital Territory of Delhi”. The amendment also provided for the creation of a 70-member legislative assembly and a 7-member council of ministers for Delhi. 

Q. 86 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 relates to- 

- 1. Goods and Services Tax

- 2. Lokpal and Lokayukta

- 3. Cooperative Societies

- 4. India-Bangladesh Enclave Exchange

• The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 relating to the co-operatives is aimed to encourage economic activities of cooperatives which in turn help progress of rural India. It is expected to not only ensure autonomous and democratic functioning of cooperatives, but also the accountability of the management to the members and other stakeholders.
• 98th Constitutional Amendment- To empower Governor of Karnataka to take steps to develop the Hyderabad-Karnataka region
• 99th CAA- Formation of National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC). This Amendment was struck down by the Supreme Court. 
• 100th CAA- Exchange of certain enclave territories with Bangladesh
• 101st CAA- Introduced the GST
• 102nd CAA- Constitutional status to National Commission for Backward Classes
• 103rd CAA- 10% reservation to EWS
• 104th CAA- Extended the reservation for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies from Seventy years to Eighty years. Also, removed the reserved seats for the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies.

Q. 87 'A' agrees to buy from 'B' a certain horse. It turns out that the horse was dead at the time of the bargain, though neither party was aware of the fact. The agreement is- 

- 1. Void

- 2. Valid

- 3. Voidable

- 4. Both Valid and Voidable

• According to Section 20 of the Indian Contract Act, the agreement where both the parties are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is void.

• Other illustrations-

-A agrees to sell to B a specific cargo of goods supposed to be on its way from England to Bombay. It turns out that, before the day of the bargain, the ship conveying the cargo had been cast away and the goods lost. Neither party was aware of these facts. The agreement is void.

-A, being entitled to an estate for the life of B, agrees to sell it to C. B was dead at the time of the agreement, but both parties were ignorant of the fact. The agreement is void. 

Q. 88 Who won the Vijay Hazare Trophy 2020-21? 

- 1. Mumbai

- 2. Vidarbha

- 3. Karnataka

- 4. Uttar Pradesh

• The 2020-21 Vijay Hazare Trophy (19th Season) took place in February-March 2021.
• The final was played between Mumbai and Uttar Pradesh.

Q. 89 Justice Nuthalapati Venkata Ramana has been appointed as the _____ Chief Justice of India. 

- 1. 47th

- 2. 48th

- 3. 49th

- 4. 46th

• Justice NV Ramana sworn in as the 48th Chief Justice of India by President Ram Nath Kovind at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
• Justice Ramana will have a tenure of one year and four months as CJI and will demit the office on 26th August, 2022.

Q. 90 The 'right to freedom of movement' as envisaged under Article 19 of the Constitution includes- 

- 1. Right to move inside the country

- 2. Right to move out of the country

- 3. Both 1 and 2

- 4. Neither 1 nor 2

• Article 19(1) (d) provides freedom of movement only throughout the territory of India. 
• Right to move out of the country is protected under Article 21.

Q. 91 Writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is wider than the High Court. The statement is- 

- 1. Correct

- 2. Incorrect

- 3. Only in some cases

- 4. Both have the same jurisdiction

• The High Courts can issue writs to enforce any other legal rights besides issuing the same for fundamental rights, whereas the Supreme Court can enforce only fundamental rights by issuance of writs.
• High Court has more discretion: As Article 32 is itself a fundamental right and provides a guaranteed remedy for the enforcement of the fundamental rights, therefore, the SC is bound to entertain petitions seeking protection against infraction of fundamental right. But the High Court may reject the writ petition on grounds of res judicata, availability of other rights etc.
• The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, in this respect, is narrower than that of High Court.

Q. 92 Consider the correct statements- 

- 1. At present, the Supreme Court of India consists of Thirty-six judges.

- 2. CJI can appoint a judge of High Court as an ad hoc judge of Supreme Court for a temporary period.

- 3. Both 1 and 2

- 4. Neither 1 nor 2

• At present the Supreme Court of India consists of thirty -four judges. Initially, the Constitution of India provided for a Supreme Court with a Chief Justice and 7 judges. 
• When there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of High Court as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period. He can do so only after consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the President of India. 

Q. 93 The terms ‘B.1.617, B.1.1.7 and B.1.351’ have been in the news recently.  These are- 

- 1. Names of variants of the Coronavirus.

- 2. New species of shrub frogs found in Western Ghats.

- 3. New species of a plant group invented by the ICAR.

- 4. New varieties of crops developed by the Indian scientists.

B.1.617, B.1.1.7 and B.1.351 are names of variants of the Coronavirus. B.1.617, a “double mutant” virus, is held responsible for the spread of the pandemic in India recently.

Q. 94 How many Fundamental Duties are mentioned in the Constitution of India at present? 

- 1. Ten

- 2. Eleven

- 3. Twelve

- 4. Thirteen

• 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added 10 Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution.
• 86th Amendment Act, 2002 later added 11th Fundamental Duty to the list.
• Swaran Singh Committee recommended the inclusion of Fundamental duties. The Fundamental Duties are dealt with Article 51A under Part IV A of the Constitution of India. 
• The list of 11 Fundamental Duties under Article 51A to be obeyed by every citizen is given below.

Q. 95 Which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty? 

- 1. To defend the country

- 2. To safeguard public property

- 3. To protect the natural environment

- 4. To promote the international peace

Article 51 of the Constitution provides for the promotion of international peace and security under Part IV i.e., Directive Principles of State Policy.

Q. 96 The concept of welfare state is included in the Constitution of India in the- 

- 1. Preamble

- 2. Fundamental Rights

- 3. Basic structure of the Constitution

- 4. Directive Principles of State Policy

Article 38 (under Part IV- Directive Principles of State Policy) of Constitution of India declares the ideal of a welfare state. The State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may a social order in which justice, social, economic and political, shall inform all the institutions of the national life.

Q. 97 Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice? 

- 1. Article 19

- 2. Article 21

- 3. Article 25

- 4. Article 14

In April 2018, the Supreme Court in Hadiya Case held that "the right to marry a person of one's choice is integral to Article 21 (right to life and liberty) of the Constitution.

Q. 98 A Member of Parliament (MP) can claim immunity from court proceedings under Parliamentary privileges- 

- 1. Civil cases only

- 2. Criminal cases only

- 3. Both from civil as well as criminal cases

- 4. Cannot claim either from civil or criminal cases

Privileges of Parliamentary Members (MPs) from proceedings-

• Freedom of Speech and immunity from court proceedings: Importance of this right for the Members of Parliament is underlined by the immunity accorded to them from civil or criminal proceedings in a court of law for having made any speech/disclosure or any vote cast inside the House or a committee thereof.
• Freedom from arrest: No member shall be arrested in a civil case 40 days before and after the adjournment of the House (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) and when the House is in the session. 

Q. 99 According to the Constitution of India, any law made by the State which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by Part III shall be- 

- 1. Void to the extent of the contravention

- 2. Voidable to the extent of the contravention

- 3. Both 1 and 2

- 4. Neither 1 nor 2

• Article 13 of the Constitution provides for the laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights. 
• Article 13 (2) states that the State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.

Q. 100 A Guru (spiritual advisor) induced his devotee to gift him whole of his property to secure benefit of his soul in the heaven. The gift shall be- 

- 1. Void

- 2. Voidable

- 3. Valid

- 4. Illegal

• Section 19A of the Indian Contract Act states that, agreements that arise out of undue influence is voidable at the option of the aggrieved party. 
• Section 16 defines undue influence as influence used by one party over another, to make them consent to an agreement against their will.

Essentials of Undue influence-

1. Relationship between the parties is such that one party has the position to dominate the will of another,
2. The person uses such dominant position to obtain an unfair advantage over the other.
3. For e.g., Doctor- Patient, Employer- Employee.