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DU LLB Question Paper 2020

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du-llb-question-paper-2020

 

Exam Date - 09-09-2020

Directions: Q. 1-5

Read the passage and answer the following question: 

What I have tried to do is to discern and articulate the natural laws of a particular kind of human undertaking, which I have described as “the enterprise of subjecting human conduct to the governance of rules”. These natural laws have nothing to do with any “brooding omnipresence in the skies.” Nor have they the slightest affinity with any such proposition as that the practice of contraception is a violation of God’s law. They remain entirely terrestrial in origin and application. They are not “higher” laws; if any metaphor of elevation is appropriate they should be called “lower” laws. They are like the natural laws of carpentry, or at least those laws respected by a carpenter who wants the house he builds to remain standing and serve the purpose of those who live in it. 

Though these natural laws touch one of the most vital of human activities they obviously do not exhaust the whole of man’s moral life. They have nothing to say on topics as polygamy, the study of Marx, the worship of God, the progressive income tax, or the subjugation of women. If the question be raised whether any of these subjects, or others like them, should be taken as objects of legislation, that question relates to what I have called the external morality of law. 

As a convenient (though not wholly satisfactory) way of describing the distinction being taken we may speak of a procedural, as distinguished from a substantive natural law. What I have called the internal morality of law is in this sense a procedural version of natural law, though to avoid misunderstanding the word ‘procedural’ should be assigned a special and expanded sense so that it would include, for example, a substantive accord between official action and enacted law. The term ‘procedural’ is, however, broadly appropriate as indicating that we are concerned, not with the substantive aims of legal rules, but with the ways in which a system of rules for governing human conduct must be constructed and administered if it is to be efficacious and at the same time remain what it purports to be.
 

1. The passage is an explanation of…. 

1. Legal Morality
2. The Worship of God
3. Natural Law
4. God’s Law

Choose the correct option from below.

1. 1,2,3 & 4

2. 1 and 3 only

3. 2 and 3 only

4. 3 only

Correct Answer :‐
1 and 3 only

 


2. The procedural version of natural law relates to

1. Internal morality

2. External morality

3. Objects of legislation

4. Human activities

Correct Answer :‐
Internal morality

 

3. Natural laws, according to this passage, are


1. the ones, having brooding omnipresence in the skies
2. terrestrial in origin and application
3. higher laws
4. lower laws
Choose the correct option from below:


1. 1 and 3 both

2. 1,2 and 3 only

3. 2 and 3 both

4. 2 and 4 both

Correct Answer :‐
2 and 4 both



4. The term ‘procedural’ means and includes

1. A substantive accord between official action and enacted law
2. Administration of a system of rules for governing human conduct
3. Construction of a system of rules for governing human conduct
4. External morality 

Choose the correct option from below

1. 1,2,3 & 4

2. 1,2 and 3 only

3. 2 and 3 only
4. 4 only

Correct Answer :‐
1,2 and 3 only



5. The enterprise of subjecting human conduct to the governance of rules relates to 

1. Natural laws
2. God's Laws
3. Objects of legislation
4. Higher laws
Choose the correct option from below.

1. 1,2,3 & 4

2. 1 only

3. 2 and 3 both

4. 4 only

Correct Answer :‐
1 only

 

6.According to the World Bank’s ‘Ease of Doing Business rankings’, bench-marked to May 2019, India is ranked at
 

1. 89

2. 75

3. 63 

4. 91
 

Correct Answer :‐
63

 

7. The difference between total revenue and total expenditure of a government is termed as

1. Fiscal deficit
2. Revenue deficit
3. Primary deficit
4. Monetized deficit
 

Correct Answer :‐
Fiscal deficit  

 

8. In 2019, the Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in memory of Alfred Nobel was awarded to

1. Richard H. Thaler 

2. William D. Nordhaus 

3. Paul M. Romer

4. Michael Kremer
 

Correct Answer :‐
Michael Kremer

 

9. As per law, the monetary policy framework in India shall be operated by

1. NITI Aayog
2. Reserve Bank of India
3. Department of Economic Affairs
4. Department of Revenue
 

Correct Answer :‐
Reserve Bank of India

 

10. The head office of the Securities and Exchange Board of India is located at

1. Delhi
2. Kolkata
3. Mumbai
4. Chennai
 

Correct Answer :‐
Mumbai

 

11. Who among the following was not a recipient of a Nobel Prize?

1. Madam Marie Curie
2. Abhijeet Banerjee
3. Mahatma Gandhi
4. Mother Teresa 

Correct Answer :‐
Mahatma Gandhi
 

12. Which of the following represents the correct order of organizing Tennis Grand Slams in an year (from January to December)?

1. Australian Open, French Open, Wimbledon, US Open 

2. US Open, Wimbledon, Australian Open, French Open 

3. Australian Open, Wimbledon, French Open, US Open 

4. Wimbledon, French Open, US Open, Australian Open 

Correct Answer :‐
Australian Open, French Open, Wimbledon, US Open 

 

13. Who among the following was not in the list of Bharat Ratna awardees in 2019?

1. Pranab Mukherjee

2. Bhupen Hazarika  

3. Nanaji Deshmukh 

4. Deen Dayal Upadhyay
 

Correct Answer :‐
Deen Dayal Upadhyay
 

14. Who won the Dadasaheb Phalke Award, 2019?

1. Rajnikant
2. Amitabh Bachhan
3. Bhupen Hazarika
4. None of these
 

Correct Answer :‐
Amitabh Bachhan

 

15. Who among the following are the recipients of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, 2019?

1. Virat Kohli and Cheteswar Pujara 

2. Deepa Malik and Bajrang Punia 

3. Fouaad Mirza and Gaurav Singh Gill 

4. Pooja Dhanda and Gurmeet Singh Sandhu 

Correct Answer :‐
Deepa Malik and Bajrang Punia 

 

16. Who among the following was the recipient of Raman Magsaysay Award, 2019?

1. Ravish Kumar 

2. Arnab Goswami 

3. Sandip Pandey

4. Punya Prasun Bajpai
 

Correct Answer :‐
Ravish Kumar 

 

17. Which country won the FIFA World Cup Final 2018?

1. Croatia   2. France   3. Brazil   4. Germany 

Correct Answer :‐
France 

 

18. Where was the ICC Women’s T20 World Cup 2020 organized ?

1. England   2. South Africa   3. Australia   4. West Indies 

Correct Answer :‐
Australia 

 

19. Who among the following have won the best actress and best actor awards for 66 National Film Awards 2019?

1. Keerthy Suresh, Ayushmann Khurana, Vicky Kaushal 

2. Deepika Padukon, Ayushmann Khurana, Akshay Kumar 

3. Kangana Ranaut, Vicky Kaushal, Swanand Kirkere 

4. Keerthy Suresh, Akshay Kumar, Swanand Kirkere 

Correct Answer :‐
Keerthy Suresh, Ayushmann Khurana, Vicky Kaushal 

 

20. Which of the following city was granted cleanest capital city award as per the Swachh Survekshan Awards 2019?

1. Lucknow  

2. Mumbai 

3. Panaji  

4. Bhopal  

Correct Answer :‐
Bhopal
 

21. Who won the Ranji Trophy 2019‐20?

1. Saurashtra 

2. Vidarbha 

3. Delhi  

4. Karnataka
 

Correct Answer :‐
Saurashtra
 

22. ‘Vyom Mitra' is ________

1. An unmanned aerial vehicle to observe air quality 

2. A nano-satellite developed by India in association with Japan

3. A humanoid which will be sent by ISRO in space. 

4. An indigenously designed aircraft to rescue people from natural disasters.
 

Correct Answer :‐
A humanoid which will be sent by ISRO in space.
 

 

23. Which of the following reports is/are released by the World Bank?
 

A. Women, Business and the Law
B. The World's Women
C. Economic Freedom Index
 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A only

2. C only

3. A and C only

4. A and B only

Correct Answer :‐
A only


24. Consider the following statements regarding Bharat Interface for Money ﴾BHIM﴿ and answer the following
question. 

1. It is a payment interface developed by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to allow real‐time fund transfer.
2. It allows for the linking of multiple bank accounts and the option of applying in Initial Public Offer (IPO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only

2. 2 only

3. Both 1 and 2

4. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer :‐
2 only

 

25. Which among the following releases the Human Capital Index?

1. World Bank
2. International Monetary Fund
3. United Nation Development Program
4. World Economic Forum 

Correct Answer :‐
World Bank 


26. 'Mohiniyattam', a classical solo dance, originated in

1. Odisha

2. Kerala

3. Tamil Nadu

4. None of these

Correct Answer :‐
Kerala

 

27. Which among the following stands for USB in relation to laptops and computers?

1. Unique Storage Bus 

2. Universal Series Bus 

3. Universal Serial Bus 

4. Unique Series Bus 

Correct Answer :‐
Universal Serial Bus 

 

28. Which one of these is not a specialized agency of the United Nations?

1. International Civil Aviation Organization

2. International Labour Organization

3. Food and Agricultural Organization 

4. World Trade Organization 

Correct Answer :‐
World Trade Organization  

 

29. Which Indian Judge was a member of the International Criminal Tribunal for the Far East (Tokyo Tribunal)?

1. Judge Radha Binod Paul 

2. Judge Nagendra Singh 

3. Judge Dalveer Bhandari 

4. Judge Hiralal J. Kania 

Correct Answer :‐
Judge Radha Binod Paul 

 

30. Which one of the following is a tripartite UN agency?

1. International Civil Aviation Organization 

2. International Maritime Organization 

3. International Labour Organization 

4. International Criminal Court

 Correct Answer :‐
International Labour Organization 

 

31. Which one of the following was established by the Rome Statute?

1. International Criminal Court 

2. International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda 

3. International Crimes Tribunal, Bangladesh 

4. Special court for Sierra Leone 

Correct Answer :‐
International Criminal Court 

 

32. Which one of the following is not a principal organ of the United Nations?

1. Trusteeship Council 

2. General Assembly  

3. Human Rights Council 

4. Security Council 

Correct Answer :‐
Human Rights Council 

 

33. In India, the writ of prohibition may be issued, when there is _________

1. Both an absence of jurisdiction or excess of jurisdiction & violation of principles of natural justice

2. Violation of principles of natural justice

3. An absence of jurisdiction or excess of jurisdiction

4. A request to produce the body of the person

Correct Answer :‐
Both an absence of jurisdiction or excess of jurisdiction & violation of principles of natural justice

 

34. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India, 1950 prescribes the forms of oaths or affirmations for constitutional functionaries?

1. Sixth Schedule   2. Second Schedule   3. Fifth Schedule   4. Third Schedule 

Correct Answer :‐
Third Schedule 

 

35. Who declared a state of emergency in India under Article 352 of the Constitution of India in the year 1975?

1. Indira Gandhi 

2. Giani Zail Singh  

3. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed 

4. Sanjay Gandhi 

Correct Answer :‐
Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed 

 

36. Who among the following has a casting vote over a bill in a joint parliamentary session?

1. Chairman of Rajya Sabha 

2. Speaker of Lok Sabha 

3. Deputy Speaker of Rajya Sabha 

4. President of India 

Correct Answer :‐
Speaker of Lok Sabha

 

37. Exchange of Enclaves between India and Bangladesh was executed through

1. 100 Constitutional Amendment Act

2. 101 Constitutional Amendment Act

3. 102 Constitutional Amendment Act 

4. 99 Constitutional Amendment Act

Correct Answer :‐
100 Constitutional Amendment Act

 

38. Article 44 of the Constitution of India is related to

1. Uniform Civil Code for citizens 

2. Provision of early childhood care and education to children below the age of 6 years 

3. The duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition 

4. Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry 

Correct Answer :‐
Uniform Civil Code for citizens 

 

39. Supreme Court of India’s judgement in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) and Anr. v Union of India and Ors is related to

1. Right to Privacy

2. 2G Spectrum

3. Coal gate Scam

4. Section 377 of IPC

Correct Answer :‐
Right to Privacy

 

40. Indian legal system confers citizenship in the following manner: 

Choose the correct option:
A. By Birth
B. By Descent
C.By Naturalization
D.By Registration


1. A and B only

2. B and C only

3. A, B and C only

4. All of these

Correct Answer :‐
All of these

 

41. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 provides for special provisions for citizenship for migrants from the following countries: 

A. Myanmar
B. Afghanistan
C. Bangladesh
D.Pakistan 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. A, C and D only

2. B, C and D only

3. A, B and C only

4. All of these

Correct Answer :‐
B, C and D only

 

42. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following fundamental rights cannot be suspended during national emergency?

1. Article 19 and 21 

2. Article 14 and 21  

3. Article 14 and 19 

4. Article 20 and 21 

Correct Answer :‐
Article 20 and 21 

 

43. The pardoning power of the Governor of a state includes: 

A. Power to pardon a sentence of life imprisonment
B. Power to grant pardon where the punishment or sentence is by Court Martial
C. Power to remit a sentence. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and C only

2. B and C only

3. A only4. All of these

Correct Answer :‐
A and C only


44. Which among the following recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India?

1. Swaran Singh Committee 

2. Nehru Committee 

3. Gadgill Committee 

4. Mandal Commission 

Correct Answer :‐
Swaran Singh Committee 

 

45. Which of the following option(s) are available for a party aggrieved by a decision of the Supreme Court of India? 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A. Curative Petition
B. Review Petition
C. Writ Petition
D. Public Interest Litigation

1. A and B only

2. B, C and D only

3. B and C only

4. All of these

Correct Answer :‐
A and B only

 

46. Under Article 25 of the Constitution of India, the right to profess, practice and propagate religion is subject to the following restrictions: 

A. Public Interest
B. Morality
C. Health
D. Other Provisions of Part III (Fundamental Rights) of the Constitution of India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only

2. B, C and D only

3. B and C only

4. All of these

Correct Answer :‐
B, C and D only
 

47. The provision relating to ex post facto law is embodied in

1. Article 20 (1) 

2. Article 20 (2)

3. Article 20 (3)

4. Article 13 (2)


Correct Answer :‐
Article 20 (1)

 

48. Which of the following terms was inserted in the Preamble of the Constitution of India through the 42 Constitutional Amendment Act?

1. Sovereign   2. Democratic   3. Secular   4. Unity 

Correct Answer :‐
Secular 

 

49. Which of the following grounds can be invoked to restrict freedom of speech and expression according to the
Constitution of India? 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A. Sovereignty and Integrity of India
B. Friendly relations with foreign States
C. Security of the State
D. Contempt of court

1. A, B and D only

2. B, C and D only 

3. A, B and C only

4. All of these

Correct Answer :‐
A, B and D only
 

50. Which is not true with regard to “common intention” under the Indian Penal Code?

1. Acts done by several persons 

2. Pre‐arranged plan

3. Prior meeting of minds

4. Membership of an unlawful assembly

Correct Answer :‐
Membership of an unlawful assembly 


51. Which of the following is an offence under the Indian Penal Code?

1. Marital rape

2. Adultery

3. Stalking

4. Both, Marital rape and Stalking

Correct Answer :‐
Stalking


52. Which chapter of the Indian Penal Code deals with general exceptions?

1. Chapter III  

2. Chapter IV 

3. Chapter V 

4. Chapter VI 

Correct Answer :‐
Chapter IV
 

53. When a man inserts, to any extent, any object or a part of the body, not being his penis, into the vagina, the urethra or anus of a woman or makes her to do so with him or any other person, he commits

1. Rape

2. Sexual Harassment

3. Sexual Assault

4. None of these

Correct Answer :‐
Rape

 

54. The Doctrine of Rarest of Rare was established in

1. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab

2. Mithu v. State of Punjab

3. Shatrughan Singh Chauhan v. Union of India

4. None of these

Correct Answer :‐
Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab

 

55. Mens rea is not a necessary condition for

1. Kidnapping

2. Murder

3. Theft

4. Wrongful Restraint

Correct Answer :‐
Kidnapping


56. The Maxim ‘ignorantia facti excusat, ignorantia juris non excusat’ means

1. Ignorance of fact excuses, ignorance of law does not excuse

2. Ignorance of law excuses, ignorance of fact does not excuse

3. Ignorance due to which mistake occurs is excused if done in good faith

4. Ignorance due to which a vital mistake occurs, is not excused even if done in good faith

Correct Answer :‐
Ignorance of fact excuses, ignorance of law does not excuse
 

57. Under the Indian Penal Code, nothing is considered to be an offence if it is done by a child under_____ years of age.

1. Six 

2. Seven 

3. Eight 

4. Nine 

Correct Answer :‐
Seven 

 

58. The right of private defence under the Indian Penal Code is available for the protection of

1. Other humans only 

2. Only self 

3. Self and other humans 

4. Only property 

Correct Answer :‐
Self and other humans  

 

59. X threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning Y unless Y gives you money. He thus induces Y to give him money. Here X has committed the offense of

1. Defamation   2. Mischief   3. Criminal Intimidation   4. Extortion 

Correct Answer :‐
Extortion 

 

60. In Navtej Singh Johar case, dealing with transgenders’ issues, the Supreme Court of India asked the Centre to include them in

1. Other Backward Classes

2. Scheduled Castes/Tribes

3. Economically Backward Classes

4. None of these

Correct Answer :‐
Other Backward Classes


61. ‘A’ in his madness, attempts to kill ‘B’. ‘B’ hits ‘A’ with an iron rod seriously injuring him. Choose the correct option from below.

1. ‘B’ has no right of private defence since ‘A’ is mad

2. ‘B’ has right of private defence though ‘A’ is mad

3. ‘B’ is guilty of inflicting grievous injury on ‘A’

4. None of these

Correct Answer :‐
‘B’ has right of private defence though ‘A’ is mad
 


62. The Fundamental Duties towards environment were imposed on the citizens in the year

1. 1978   2. 1974   3. 1976   4. 1992 

Correct Answer :‐
1976  

 

63. Bharat Stage Emission Standards (BSES) are set by the

1. Central Pollution Control Board 

2. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change 

3. Ministry of Transport and Highways 

4. Supreme Court of India 

Correct Answer :‐
Central Pollution Control Board 

 

64. The Blue Flag, a certification that a beach, marina, or sustainable boating tourism operator meets its stringent
standards, is awarded by.

1. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
2. Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE)
3. United Nations
4. International Seabed Authority
 

Correct Answer :‐
Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE) 

 

 65. The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) is also known as the

1. Earth Summit
2. Paris Convention
3. Kyoto Protocol
4. Montreal Protocol 

Correct Answer :‐
Earth Summit


66. Which among the following is an international treaty related to the protection of the ozone layer?

1. Kyoto Protocol
2. Paris Agreement
3. Montreal Protocol
4. Aarhus Convention  

Correct Answer :‐
Montreal Protocol
 

67. The United Nations Programme on Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (or UN‐REDD Programme) is a collaborative programme of the… 

A. Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO)
B. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
C.United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and C only

2. B and C only

3. None

4. All of these

Correct Answer :‐
All of these


68. Which of the following is a legal effect of adoption?

1. A. An adopted child shall be deemed to be the child of his or her adoptive father or mother.

2. B. All the ties of the child in the family of his or her birth shall be deemed to be severed.

3. C. Both A and B

4. D. None of these

Correct Answer :‐
C. Both A and B
 

69. Under Muslim law, a legal guardian may

1. Sell the movable property in the interest of the child

2. Exercise right of pre‐emption on behalf of the child

3. Acknowledge a debt on behalf of the child

4. All of these

Correct Answer :‐
All of these

 

70. Which among the following is not a ground for divorce under the Special Marriage Act, 1954?

1. Adultery
2. Desertion
3. Mental disorder
4. Irretrievable breakdown of marriage 

Correct Answer :‐
Irretrievable breakdown of marriage 


71. Degrees of prohibited relationships is applicable between two persons if they are related by

1. Full blood

2. Half or uterine blood

3. Adoption

4. All of these

Correct Answer :‐
All of these
 

72. Which of the following is provided in section 7 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?

1. Registration

2. Ceremonies for solemnising a Hindu marriage

3. Adoption of child

4. All of these

Correct Answer :‐
Ceremonies for solemnising a Hindu marriage
 

73. The manager of Waqf is known as

1. Mujwar
2. Mutawalli
3. Khadim
4. Sajjada Nashin  

Correct Answer :‐
Mutawalli
 

 74. Which Amendment of the Constitution of India reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?
[Question ID = 8419]
 

1. 73rd Constitutional Amendment
2. 69th Constitutional Amendment
3. 61st Constitutional Amendment
4. 83rd Constitutional Amendment 

Correct Answer :‐
61st Constitutional Amendment


75. The Election Commission of India does not have the power to

1. Register a political party

2. Re‐register a political party

3. Conduct election to State Legislatures

4. None of these

Correct Answer :‐
Re‐register a political party


76. Who elects the representatives of the states in Rajya Sabha?

1. Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies
2. All registered voters in India
3. Elected Members of Parliament
4. Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies and Parliament

Correct Answer :‐
Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies 


77. Which practices among the following constitute ‘corrupt practice’ in the Parliamentary election?

1. Bribery

2. Procuring assistance of the government servants

3. Promoting the feeling of hatred and enmity between different classes of citizens on ground of religion, caste etc.

4. All of these

Correct Answer :‐
All of these

 

78. What can be the maximum number of representatives of States and Union Territories in the Council of States ?

1.  238
2. 240
3. 245
4. 250  

Correct Answer :‐
238 

 

79. An agreement consists of reciprocal promises between at least…..

1. Four parties
2. Six parties
3. Three parties
4. Two parties 

Correct Answer :‐
Two parties


80. Who among the following does not have the capacity to enter into a contract?

1. Corporation

2. Minor

3. A person convicted of an offence

4. All of these

Correct Answer :‐
Minor

 

81. The age of majority for entering into a contract under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is

1. 18 years
2. 21 years
3. 16 years
4. 25 years 

Correct Answer :‐
18 years  

 

82. A contract of insurance is an example of

1. Quasi Contract

2. Contingent Contract

3. Both

4. None of these

Correct Answer :‐
Contingent Contract
 

83. Agreement of social nature is unenforceable because it lacks

1. Intention to create moral relationship
2. Intention to create social relationship
3. Intention to create legal relationship
4. Intention to create an agreement 

Correct Answer :‐
Intention to create legal relationship


84. Doctrine of privity of contract implies

1. Only those persons who are party to a contract can enforce the same
2. Only those persons who are not party to a contract can enforce the same
3. Only those persons who are known to the promisor can enforce the contract
4. Only those persons who are known to the promisee can enforce the contract  

Correct Answer :‐
Only those persons who are party to a contract can enforce the same
 

85. In India, provisions of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 apply to

1. Citizens

2. Persons

3. Companies

4. All of these

Correct Answer :‐
All of these

 

86. Product patent in India was introduced in

1. 2004
2. 2005
3. 2003
4. 2006  

Correct Answer :‐
2005  

 

87. Industrial design specifically refers to

1. Form of expression
2. Functionality
3. Form of expression with aesthetic appeal
4. Invention  

Correct Answer :‐
Form of expression with aesthetic appeal  

 

88. Which among the following combinations is not mentioned under the TRIPS?

1. Patents, Trademarks and Copyright
2. Patents, Trademarks and Industrial Designs
3. Patents, Copyright and Data Exclusivity
4. Patents, Copyright and Undisclosed Information 

Correct Answer :‐
Patents, Copyright and Data Exclusivity 

 

89. Intellectual property rights are ________ in their enforcement.

1. Territorial

2. Regional

3. International

4. All of these

Correct Answer :‐
Territorial

 

90. The trade‐related intellectual property disputes are settled by

1. WIPO
2. WTO
3. ICJ
4. World Economic Forum 

Correct Answer :‐
WTO

 

91. The formula of making Coca Cola is protected under-

1. Copyright

2. Trademarks

3. Trade Secrets

4. None of these

Correct Answer :‐
Trade Secrets

 

92. In the following question, choose the correct alternative which can replace the question mark 

Ignominous: Honourable:: Cajole: ?

1. Notorious
2. Coax
3. Bully
4. Filch  

Correct Answer :‐
Bully
 

93. In the following question, choose the correct alternative which can replace the question mark 

Condign: Deserved :: Veracity : ?

1. Mercy
2. Boring
3. Obloquy
4. Accuracy
 

Correct Answer :‐
Accuracy 


94. Complete the series.

RESTITUTION, ESTITUTIO, TITUTIO, ITUTI,

1. UTI
2. TUT
3. ITU
4. TI 

Correct Answer :‐
UTI
 

95. If A x B means A is to the north of B;  A + B means A is to the south of B;  A % B means A is to the west of B; A ‐ B means A is to the east of B;  then in P % Q + R ‐ S, S is in which direction with respect to Q?

1. South‐West
2. South‐East
3. North‐East
4. North‐West 

Correct Answer :‐
North‐West


96. Read the passage and answer the following question: 

Directions: Q. 96-97

Nine diplomats R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting around a table facing the centre. Z sits 5th to the right of X. T is not an immediate neighbour of either X or Z. S sits between Y and V. T sits 4th to the left of V. U sits 2nd to the right of W. Y is not an immediate neighbour of Z. 

Which of the following is U’s position with respect to S in the anti‐clock wise direction starting from S?

1. 3 to the Left

2. 4 to the Left

3. 5 to the Right

4. 7 to the Right

Correct Answer :‐
5 to the Right

97. Three of the following pairs are alike based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Find the odd one out.

1. TR

2. ZS

3. YW

4. UV

Correct Answer :‐
UV


98. Read the passage and answer the following one question:

A wildlife sanctuary contains animals of at least two of the following six kinds‐‐nilgai, chinkara, black buck, wild boar, leopards, jackals. No other kinds of animals are in the sanctuary. The following conditions must hold: 

1. Jackals are not in the sanctuary if Chinkaras are
2. Black bucks are not in the sanctuary if Wild boars are
3. Either wild boar or jackal, but not both, are in the sanctuary
4. Jackals are in the sanctuary if Nilgais, Leopards, or both are in the sanctuary. 

If there are no wild boars in the sanctuary, then which one of the following is a kind of animal that cannot be in the
sanctuary

1. Nilgai

2. Chinkara

3. Black buck

4. Jackal

Correct Answer :‐
Chinkara
 

99. Given A ÷ B means A is father of B,  A x B means A is wife of B,  A + B means A is the brother of B,  A ‐ B means A is the daughter of B. 

If, E ÷ F x G + H, then how is H related to F?

1. Brother‐in‐law

2. Brother

3. Father

4. Father‐in‐law.

Correct Answer :‐
Brother‐in‐law
 

100. Choose the odd one out

1. FCDE

2. UQRS

3. KGHI

4. PLMN

Correct Answer :‐
FCDE



Read this also - DU LLB Question Paper 2019

 

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