DUET-2020
DELHI UNIVERSITY LLB ENTRANCE MOCK TEST-2
Time Duration - 2 Hours Maximum Marks - 400
Marking Scheme –
4 Marks for each correct answer.
-1 for each incorrect answer.
Q. 1 In the question below are given some statements followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some laptops are mobile.
All mobiles are camera.
Some cameras are wire.
Conclusions:
I: All laptops being camera is a possibility.
II: Some mobiles can be wire.
1. Only conclusion I is true.
2. Only conclusion II is true.
3. Both conclusions I and II are true.
4. Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
Q. 2 Question given below has a set of three statements. Choose the alternative where the third statement can be logically deduced from both the preceding alternatives, but not just from one of them-
A: Few mathematicians are scientists. Some scientists play. Few Mathematicians play.
B: Rabbit is a flower. Some flowers are made of chromoplasts. Rabbit is made of chromoplast.
C: No elephant eats grass. All lions eat grass. No lions are elephants.
1. A only
2. A and C
3. A and B
4. C only
Q. 3 E, V, S, U, and Q, all have different weights. V is heavier than U. Q is lighter than V but heavier than U. V is not the heaviest, E is heavier than S.
Who among the following person is the heaviest?
1. E
2. S
3. V
4. Q
Q.4 What will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following questions?
88 × 0.5 + 32 × 0.75 – 15 =?
1. 53
2. 43
3. 56
4. 63
Q. 5 On a particular day 300 members are present in Lok Sabha at the time of voting. In this scenario, an amendment bill under Article 368 of the constitution-
1. can be passed with the support of only 150 members.
2. cannot be passed without support of at least 273 members.
3. can be passed with a support from minimum 200 members.
4. cannot be passed with the given strength of members present for voting.
Q. 6 Who is the President of Brazil, who was also the Chief Guest on Republic Day, 2020?
1. Jair Bolsonaro
2. Benjamin Netanyahu
3. Sergio Moro
4. Flavio Bolsonaro
Q. 7 The responsibility of conducting the decennial Census of India is vested with-
1. Ministry of Home Affairs
2. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
3. Ministry of Human resource Development
4. Ministry of Labour and Employment
Q.8 The notification issued by the President when the business of a session of the Parliament is completed is known as?
1. Dissolution
2. Prorogation
3. Adjournment
4. Adjournment Sine Die
Q. 9 International Labour (Workers’) Day is celebrated on:
1. 23rd April
2. 01st May
3. 29th May
4. 02nd June
Q. 10 The Preamble of Indian Constitution does not envisage which kind of ’Liberty’-
1. Thought
2. Profession
3. Belief
4. Worship
Q. 11 In the context of polity, who among the following can be termed as the ‘Permanent Executives’?
1. Council of Ministers
2. President
3. Cabinet
4. Bureaucrats
Q. 12 The National Emergency was imposed for the first time during the Prime Ministership of-
1. Lal Bahadur Shastri
2. Indira Gandhi
3. Jawahar Lal Nehru
4. Gulzarial Nanda
Q. 13 With reference to Schedule V of the Indian Constitution, scheduled areas are declared by-
1. Governor of a state
2. Parliament
3. President
4. State Legislature
Q. 14 In the context of the Indian Constitution, the “union of the trinity”, as described by Dr. Ambedkar, includes-
1. The legislature, the executive and the judiciary
2. Fundamental Rights, DPSPs and Fundamental Duties
3. Liberty, Equality and Fraternity
4.Union list, State list and the concurrent list in the VII Schedule
Q. 15 In order to set free an arrested person if the manner or grounds of arrest are not lawful, which of the following writs is the court likely to issue?
1. Habeas corpus
2. Mandamus
3. Quo warranto
4. Certiorari
Q. 16 Which of the following is not a Constitutional body?
1. National Commission for Backward Classes
2. State Public Service Commission
3. Central Vigilance Commission
4. Finance Commission
Q. 17 Prime Ministerial oath is administered by the ________?
1. Chief Justice of India
2. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
3. President of India
4. Chief Election Commissioner
Q. 18 In which of the following landmark judgements the collegium system was adopted in the appointment of judges of Supreme Court and High Courts, also known as the ‘Second Judges Case’, 1993?
1. S. P. Gupta v. Union of India
2. Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association Vs. Union of India
3. Central Public Office, Supreme Court v. Union of India
4. M.N. Venkatachaliah v. Union of India
Q. 19 Which of the following is not included in the Fundamental Duties of citizens as per the Constitution of India?
1. To cast vote in an election.
2. To have compassion for living creatures.
3. To safeguard public property.
4. All of these are included in the Fundamental Duties.
Q. 20 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the constitutional office of the Governor?
1. A person can be appointed a Governor of maximum two states.
2. Constitution prohibits a person domicile in a particular state to become the Governor of the same state.
3. The Constitution does not lay down any grounds for removal of a Governor.
4. The Governor presides over the meeting of the Council of Ministers.
Q. 21 Name of a state can be altered by Parliament through a bill passed by:
1. Simple majority of Parliament
2. Special majority of Parliament
3. Special majority of Parliament and ratification by the concerned state legislature
4. Simple majority of Parliament and ratification by the Council of States
Q. 22 With reference to the Constituent Assembly, which of the following statements is incorrect?
1. It was setup based on the proposals under the Mountbatten Plan.
2. It held its first sitting before India became independent.
3. Its members were chosen by indirect election by members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies.
4. None of the above.
Q. 23 Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
1. Article 19
2. Article 21
3. Article 14
4. Article 22B
Q. 24 Which of the following can be considered as the discretionary powers of the President?
1. President can ask the Council of ministers to reconsider the advice given to him.
2. He can refuse to give assent to ordinary bills passed by the Parliament
3. Appointment of Prime Minister in case of a hung assembly.
4. All of the above
Q. 25 Which of the following statements regarding the impeachment of the President is/are correct?
1. Impeachment charges can be initiated in the Lok Sabha only.
2. The nominated members of both Houses of the Parliament cannot take part in impeachment proceedings.
3. No President has been so far impeached from his post.
4. None of the above.
Q. 26 The Speaker Pro Tem of the Lok Sabha is:
1. Elected by the members of the Lok Sabha.
2. Nominated by the Party in the majority.
3. Nominated by the outgoing Speaker.
4. Appointed by the President.
Q. 27 With reference to the Delimitation Commission, which of the following statements is incorrect?
1. Under Article 82, the Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act after every census.
2. It is appointed by the President and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India.
3. The order of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a court of law.
4. None of the above
Q. 28 Who of the following may not act as President when a vacancy occurs in the office of President?
1. Vice President
2. Chief Justice of India
3. Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
4. Any of the above can act as President in the given situation.
Q. 29 In which landmark judgement the Supreme Court concluded that the power of the President to dismiss a State government is not absolute?
1. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India, 1994
2. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, 1978
3. Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar, 1979
4. Gopalanchari v. State of Kerala, 1980
Q. 30 As per the Indian Constitution, the Gram Sabha is a body consisting of:
1. The whole population of the village under the Panchayat.
2. The adult population of the village under the Panchayat.
3. The registered voters of the village under the Panchayat.
4. All the Village committees constituted by the Panchayat.
Q. 31 Consider the correct statements:
1. All acts under 9th Schedule have immunity from judicial review.
2. Judicial review is part of the basic structure of the constitution.
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 32 In the absence of the Speaker, who amongst the following preside over joint sitting of the two houses of Parliament?
1. President
2. Vice-President
3. Deputy Speaker
4. Deputy Chairman
Q. 33 Which of the following is not included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States.
2. A dispute between two or more States.
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory.
4. All of the above are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
Q. 34 With reference to the Rajya Sabha, consider the incorrect statements:
1. The Constitution has not fixed the term of office of members of Rajya Sabha.
2. Only the elected members of State Legislatures can elect members of Rajya Sabha.
3. All states have equal representation in Rajya Sabha.
4. None of the above
Q. 35 What will come in
place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
9/2 - 17/6 = ? - 19/12
1. 15/4
2. 17/4
3. 13/4
4. 9/4
Q. 36 Find what number
will come at the place of question mark in the following number series.
80, 40, 120, 30, 150, ?
1. 25
2. 20
3. 30
4. 60
Q. 37 A container contains mixture of milk and water in ratio 3:2. If 4 litres of milk is added in it then ratio of milk to water becomes 2:1. Find the initial quantity of total mixture.
1. 20 litres
2. 16 litres
3. 40 litres
4. 24 litres
(Instructions for Q. 38-39) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
Among Six friend A, B, C, D, E, F, have different height D is taller than only B. C is taller than F but shorter than E. E is not the tallest. The one who is third shortest is 162cm. The one who is second tallest is 170cm.
Q. 38 What is the possible height of C?
1. 172cm
2. 165cm
3. 174cm
4. 160cm
Q. 39 Who among the following is the tallest person?
1. C
2. E
3. A
4. B
Q. 40 The average of five consecutive even numbers is 20. Find the largest of these numbers.
1. 30
2. 26
3. 24
4. 40
Q. 41 One card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card
drawn is either an ace or a queen?
1. 2/13
2. 6/13
3. 5/8
4. 3/13
Q. 42 The 277th report of Law Commission of India deals with-
1. Electoral Reforms
2. Wrongful Prosecution
3. Review of Contempt of Courts Act
4. Legal Framework: BCCI vis-Ã -vis RTI Act, 2005
Q. 43 Which among the following nations became the first nation to declare climate emergency?
1. Sweden
2. Norway
3. United Kingdom
4. Ireland
Q. 44 Kleptocracy means –
1. System of rule by the politically corrupt people
2. System of rule by wealthy people
3. System of rule by technical experts
4. System of the rule by chosen representatives.
Q. 45 Under Section 15 of the Indian Contract Act, a threat to suicide amounts to-
1. Undue influence
2. Coercion
3. Abetment
4. Negligence
Q. 46 A promise made without any intention of performing it, is a-
1. Fraud
2. Concealment
3. Cheating
4. Misrepresentation
Q.47 A contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of promisor himself, is known as a-
1. Contract of guarantee
2. Contract of indemnity
3. Contract of surety
4. Contract of liability
Q. 48 Two persons are said to be related to each other by ‘Half-blood’ when they are descended from-
1. a common ancestor by the same wife
2. a common ancestor but by different wives
3. a same ancestor and the same wife
4. a different ancestor but same wife
Q. 49 The ‘F+’ logo was notified by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) to identify-
1. to identify the food that is organically produced
2. to identify the fortified foods
3. to identify the fat free foods
4. to identify the food safety
Q. 50 Every agreement of which the object or consideration is unlawful is-
1. Void agreement
2. Voidable Agreement
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above
Q. 51 Under Schedule VII, ‘Electricity’ comes under which of the following lists?
1. Union List
2. State List
3. Concurrent List
4. Residuary Powers
Q. 52 A, a surgeon, knowing that a particular operation is likely to cause death of Z, who suffers under the painful complaint, but not intending to cause Z’s death, & intending in good faith, Z’s benefit, performs that operation on Z, with Z’s consent. Which offence did A commit?
1. Offence of hurt
2. No offence
3. Offence of grievous hurt
4. Criminal attempt
Q. 53 What does the legal maxim ‘obiter dicta’ mean?
1. As much as observed
2. Under judicial consideration
3. A remark/observation in a judgement that is ‘said in passing’
4. Principles of law formulated by the Judge
Q. 54 Which of the following is not an essential condition for a Hindu marriage?
1. Neither party has a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
2. Neither party is incapable of giving a valid consent to it in consequence of unsoundness of mind.
3. The bridegroom has completed the age of 21 years and the bride 18 years at the time of the marriage
4. All these are essential conditions for a Hindu marriage.
Q. 55 Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the National Population Register (NPR)
1. It is a register containing the names of Indian citizens only
2. the NPR database contains the demographic as well as biometric particulars.
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Q. 56 Which of the following statements regarding the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 is incorrect?
1. Replacing the Consumer Protection Act, 1986, it has come into effect from 20th July, 2020.
2. A consumer under the Act includes a person who obtains a service for commercial purposes.
3. It penalises the manufacturer as well as the endorser for misleading advertisements.
4. It provides for product liability mandating a product manufacturer to compensate a consumer for any harm caused by a defective product.
Q. 57 Which of the following Acts abolished the East India Company and was known as the Act for the Good Government of India?
1. Charter Act, 1853
2. Government of India Act, 1919
3. Government of India Act, 1858
4. Regulating Act of 1773
Q. 58 Consider the correct statement(s) regarding 126th Constitutional Amendment Bill.
1. It was introduced in the Lok Sabha by the Minister of Law and Justice, Sh. Ravi Shankar Prasad.
2. The Bill sought to extend the reservation in the Lok Sabha for SC and STs by another 10 years.
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 59 Consider the correct statements regarding the office of President.
1. During his term, criminal proceedings can be initiated against him only in respect of his personal acts.
2. Civil proceedings can be instituted against him during his term of office, after giving him two months’ notice.
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 60 Consider the correct statements.
1. Adjournment Motion can be brought in any house of the Parliament to discuss an urgent matter.
2. Council of ministers must resign on passing of Adjournment Motion in the Lok Sabha.
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 61 Consider the correct statements regarding appointing an Ad hoc Judge to Supreme Court:
1. Retired judge of Supreme Court or high courts is appointed by the Chief Justice of India as an Ad hoc judge to Supreme Court.
2. Ad hoc judges can be appointed by CJI only after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president.
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
(Instructions for Q. 62-63) Study the following information carefully and answer
the questions given below:
Raj goes to his home from point D. He walks 11m to North and reaches at point E. Now, he takes right turn and walk 8m to reach point F. Then, he takes left turn and walk 5m to reach point G. Finally, he takes left turn and walk 7m to reach his home.
Q.62
In which of the following direction point E is from Raj’s
home?
1. South
2. South-east
3. South-west
4. North
Q. 63 If point P is 6m
south of point E then, what is the shortest distance between point P and F?
1. 8m
2. 9m
3. 7m
4. 10m
Q. 64 Which of the following options is incorrect regarding the pardoning power of the President i.e. Article 72?
1. Reprieve means temporary suspension of death sentence.
2. Remission means the reduction of the amount of sentence while changing its character.
3. Respite means awarding a lesser punishment on some special grounds.
4. Commutation means replacing the punishment with less severe punishment.
Q.65 Who is a 'Bailiff'?
1. The 'person' released by the police, magistrate or court who was held in legal custody
2. An officer of a court concerned with the service of the court processes.
3. The lawyer who applies for the bail.
4. The person who collects a specified sum by the person who has been granted bail.
Q.66 The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) functions under which Ministry?
1. Ministry of Home Affairs
2. Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
3. Prime Minister's Office
4. Cabinet Secretariat
Q.67 A, B and C enter into an agreement for the division among them of gains acquired or to be acquired, by them by fraud. The agreement is-
1. Valid
2. Illegal
3. Void
4. Voidable
Q. 68 ‘International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea’ is headquartered at-
1. Hague, Netherland
2. Geneva, Switzerland
3. Hamburg, Germany
4. Brussels, Belgium
Q. 69 A finds B’s purse and gives it to him. B promises to give A Rs. 50. This agreement is a-
1. Valid contract
2. Invalid contract
3. Void contract
4. Voidable contract
Q. 70 A lays sticks and turf over a pit, with the intention of thereby causing death, or with the knowledge that death is likely to be thereby caused. Z, believing the ground to be firm, treads on it, falls in and killed. A has committed the offence of-
1. Murder
2. Attempt to murder
4. No offence
Q. 71 A, with the intention of causing the death of a child of tender years, exposes it in a desert place. A has committed the offence of-
1. Criminal breach of trust
2. Culpable homicide
3. Attempt to murder
4. None of the above
Q. 72 A, intending of knowing himself to be likely permanently to disfigure Z’s face, gives Z a blow which does not permanently disfigure Z’s face, but which causes Z to suffer severe bodily pain for the space of fifteen days. What offence has A committed?
1. Culpable homicide
2. Voluntarily causing grievous hurt
3. Voluntarily causing hurt
4. Endangered Z’s life
Q. 73 ‘Feeling a bit under the weather’ means-
1. Feeling slightly ill
2. To proceed cheerfully
3. Enjoying every bit of the weather
4. Feeling under pressure
Q. 74 ‘A mare’s nest’ means-
1. Having different opinions
2. A false invention
3. A tough task
4. An impossible event
Q. 75 Choose the correct spelling-
1. Manuvere
2. Manouvre
3. Manouevre
4. Manoeuvre
Q. 76 Choose the correct spelling-
1. Honourarium
2. Honorarium
3. Honourerium
4. Honourrarium
Q. 77 The holy Gurudwara of Kartarpur Sahib is significant because it was-
1. Birth place of Guru Granth Sahib
2. Final resting place of Guru Gobind Singh Sahib
3. Birth place of Guru Amardeb Sahib
4. Final resting place of Guru Nanak Dev
Q. 78 Sharad Arvind Bobde is ___ Chief Justice of India.
1. 45th
2. 47th
3. 48th
4. 49th
Q. 79 Seniority of Judges at the apex court in India is determined by-
1. determined by age
2. the date of becoming a judge
3. the date a judge was appointed to the Supreme Court
4. time remaining for the retirement
Q. 80 ‘Mind Master’ is the autobiography of-
1. Sachin Tendulkar
2. Amit Shah
3. MS Dhoni
4. Viswanathan Anand
Q. 81 Narora Atomic Power Station is a nuclear power plant located in-
1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Gujarat
3. Maharashtra
4. Karnataka
Q. 82 The Chairman of Public Sector Banks are selected by-
1. Reserve Bank of India
2. Bank Board Bureau
3. Ministry of Finance
4. Management of concerned bank
Q. 83 Which section of the IPC was struck down in the landmark case Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India, 2018?
1. Section 497
2. Section 377
3. Section 397
4. Section 309
(Instructions for Q.84-85) In each of the question given below, a statement has been given with a blank. Choose the most appropriate word that could fit in the statement to make it contextually meaningful and grammatically correct.
Q. 84 Differences aside, the events in Hong Kong and Taiwan are not entirely _______.
1. anomalous
2. cautious
3. unrelated
4. ignorant
Q. 85 Inflation is back
in the news and ___________ has willy-nilly turned on the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI).
1. vicious
2. rectification
3. wandering
4. attention
Q. 86 Name the clinical trial in which blood is transfused from recovered COVID-19 patients to create antibodies on those infected individuals.
1. Hydroxychloroquine therapy
2. Plasma therapy
3. Blood therapy
4. Genome therapy
Q. 87 In which of the following cases Supreme Court declared section 66A of the IT Act null and void and held that it was violating constitutional right under freedom of speech and expression?
1. Ramesh Dalal v. Union of India
2. Sarla Mudgal v. Union of India
3. Common Cause v. Union of India
4. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
Q. 88 Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a petition for divorce can be presented only after-
1. 1 year from the date of marriage
2. 3 years from the date of marriage
3. 2 years from the date of marriage
4. 6 months from the date of marriage
Q.89 In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?
1. The proportion of literates in the population
2. The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines
3. The size of population in the working age group
4. The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society
Q. 90 The Headquarter of World Trade Organisation is -
1. Washington D.C., USA
2. London, England
3. New York, USA
4. Geneva, Switzerland
Q. 91 In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
1. Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
2. Absence of restraint
3. Opportunity to do whatever one likes
4. Opportunity to develop oneself fully
Q. 92 ‘A’ agrees to sell his house to ‘B’, ‘A’ has two houses. The agreement is:
1. Valid
2. Void
3. Voidable
4. Either 2 or 3
Q. 93 The Nobel Prize in Literature 2019 was awarded to
1. Peter Handke
2. Patrick Modiano
3. James Peebles
4. Akira Yoshino
Q. 94 GI tags are issued as per the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act,1999. This tag is issued by the Geographical Indication Registry under which Ministry?
1. Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs)
2. Ministry of Textiles
3. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
4. Ministry of Geographical Affairs of India
Q. 95 Trespass to chattels means-
1. Intentional interference with a person’s lawful possession of a movable personal property
2. Unintentional interference with a person’s lawful possession of a movable personal property
3. Intentional interference with a person’s lawful possession of an immovable personal property
4. Unintentional interference with a person’s lawful possession of an immovable personal property
Q. 96 Rice, maize and millets are examples of-
1. Kharif crops
2. Rabi crops
3. Zaid crops
4. Cash crops
Q. 97 Free legal aid is a-
1. Fundamental right
2. Statutory Right
3. Legal Right
4. All of the above
Q. 98 The average of five consecutive even numbers is 20. Find the largest of these numbers.
1. 12
2. 14
3. 24
4. 22
Q. 99 Complete the series:
|
A |
D |
G |
|
D |
I |
N |
|
I |
P |
? |
1. W
2. V
3. Y
4. X
Q. 100 Complete the series:
|
H |
K |
Q |
|
C |
G |
O |
|
E |
J |
? |
1. T
2. N
3. L
4. P
***
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