DUET-2020
DELHI UNIVERSITY LLB ENTRANCE MOCK TEST
Time Duration - 2 Hours Maximum Marks - 400
Marking Scheme –
4 Marks for each correct answer.
-1 for each incorrect answer. ________________________________________________________________________________
Q. 1 In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
All Bag are Purple
No Purple are Pink.
Conclusion
I: Some Bags are Pink. II: All Pink can be Bag.
1. Only conclusion I is true.
2. Only conclusion II is true.
3. Either conclusion I or II is true.
4. Neither conclusion I nor II is true.
Q. 2 In each of the questions below are given some
statements followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements
to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read
all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
All Paper are Bottle.
Some Cup are Bottle.
Conclusion
I: Some Paper are Cup. II: All
Cup can be Bottle.
1. Only conclusion I is true.
2. Only conclusion II is true.
3. Either conclusion I or II is true.
4. Both conclusions I and II are true.
Q. 3 In these questions, relationship between different elements is show in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer:
1. Only conclusion I is true.
2. Only conclusion II is true.
3. Either conclusion I or II is true.
4. Both conclusions I and II are true.
Q. 4 What
should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?
?, 60, 39, 66, 33, 72
1. 45
2. 42
3. 39
4. 48
Q. 5 A agrees to sell to B a specific cargo of goods supposed to be on its way from England to Bombay. It turns out that, before the day of the bargain, the ship conveying the cargo had been cast away and the goods lost. Neither party was aware of these facts. The agreement is-
1. Void
2. Voidable
3. Void or Voidable
4. Essential to perform
Q. 6 What will come in the place of question mark (?) in the following number series.
169, 121, ? , 49, 25
1. 150
2. 64
3. 81
4. 73
Q. 7 According to the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 (GI Act), the registration of a GI tag shall be for a period of ______?
1. 5 years
2. 10 years
3. 20 years
4. 15 years
Q.8 What is the minimum age of a person who can be charged for a crime (age of criminal responsibility or ‘doli incapax) in India?
1. 7 Years
2. 12 Years
3. 10 Years
4. 16 Years
Q. 9 World Consumer Rights Day is celebrated on:
1. 25th April
2. 19th June
3. 15th March
4. 05th July
Q. 10 Article 51A (Chapter IV A) has been added to the Constitution of India by-
1. The Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment) Act
2. The Constitution (Thirty-Eighth Amendment) Act
3. The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act
4. The Constitution (Fifty-Second Amendment) Act
Q. 11 A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of:
1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill
4. All of these
Q. 12 Article 352 of Constitution of India was invoked in India for the first time in-
1. 1971
2. 1975
3. 1962
4. 1977
Q. 13 Which of the following Articles empowers the President the power to grant pardons?
1. Article 70
2. Article 71
3. Article 72
4. Article 74
Q. 14 What happens when the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha-
1. the Budget is modified and presented again
2. the Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
3. the Union Finance Minister is asked to resign
4. the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers
Q. 15 If an inferior court has violated the principles of natural justice, then which of the following writs is most suitable to be granted by the superior court?
1. Mandamus
2. Prohibition
3. Certiorari
4. Quo Warranto
Q. 16 Which Article of the Constitution of India empowers the President to issue an ordinance?
1. Article 74
2. Article 67
3. Article 123
4. Article 109
Q. 17 With reference to the election of the President of India under Article 55, which of the following statements is correct?
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from state to state.
2. The value of the vote of an MP of Lok Sabha is more than that of the Rajya Sabha MP.
3. The value of the vote of each MP varies from state to state.
4. The value of the vote of an MP and MLA is same.
Q. 18 The Supreme Court of India on in 2018 ruled that Adultery is no longer a crime, striking down Section 497 of the IPC. This judgement is known as-
1. Common Cause v. Union of India
2. Joseph Shine v. Union of India
3. Shyam Narayan Chouksey v. Union of India
4. Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
Q. 19 The concept of Curative Petition was first evolved by the Supreme Court in which of the following cases?
1. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980)
2. Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra & Anr (2002)
3. Dr. Upendra Baxi v. State of UP (1983)
4. Organisation for Human Rights v. UoI (1976)
Q. 20 How many times the President of USA can seek re-election to his post?
1. Once
2. Two times
3. Three times
4. Any number of times
Q. 21 The resignation of the Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be addressed to -
1. The President of India
2. The Secretary General of Lok Sabha
3. The Prime Minister
4. The Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
Q. 22 The VICE-PRESIDENT OF INDIA may be removed from his office by-
1. Resolution of the House of the People & duly approved by the President.
2. Resolution of the Council of States & agreed to by the House of the people.
3. Resolution of the Council of States only.
4. The President of India upon the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Q. 23 Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1. Nominated members of Parliament can vote in the election of the President of India.
2. Nominated members of Parliament can vote in the impeachment process of the President of India.
3. Nominated members of Parliament can vote in the election of the Vice President of India.
4. Nominated members of Parliament can vote in the removal process of the Vice President of India
Q. 24 Consider the correct statement about the writ jurisdiction.
1. The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against public authorities only.
2. The writ of certiorari is available against legislative bodies.
3. The writ of prohibition cannot be issued against the Judicial and Quasi-Judicial bodies.
4. Quo warranto can also be issued against the Advocate-General.
Q. 25 ‘Objectives Resolution’ moved in the Constituent Assembly on 13th December 1946 was unanimously adopted by the assembly on-
1. 13th December 1946
2. 29th December 1946
3. 26th January 1947
4. 22nd January 1947
Q. 26 Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
1. Liberty of expression
2. Liberty of belief
3. Economic liberty
4. Liberty of thought
Q. 27 In which year The Lokpal and Lokayuktas, Act was enacted by the Parliament of India?
1. 2012
2. 2014
3. 2013
4. 2015
Q. 28 Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to punish for contempt of itself?
1. Article 126
2. Article 129
3. Article 139
4. Article 348
Q. 29 Which of the following statement(s) was/were declared as part of the judgment in Keshavananda Bharati case, 1973?
1. Parliament cannot abrogate the basic structure of Constitution.
2. Supreme Court has the right to decide what constitutes basic structure of the Constitution.
3. Right to property is not part of the basic structure of Constitution.
4. All of the above
Q. 30 As per VII Schedule of the Constitution of India, the power to enact laws on residuary matters lies with-
1. President
2. Supreme Court
3. State Legislature
4. Parliament
Q. 31 Who is associated with ‘P’ in JVP (Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhbhai Patel, ________) Committee which was constituted in 1948 to examine the feasibility of reorganisation of states on linguistic basis?
1. P.S Nataraja
2. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
3. P. Saravanan
4. Padalkar Gopichand
Q. 32 Who was the first Attorney General of India?
1. K.K. Venugopal
2. Mukul Rohatgi
3. M.C. Setalvad
4. H.J. Kania
Q. 33 The name of the Union given in the Article 1 of the Constitution-
1. Bharat, that is India
2. India, also known as Bharat
3. India, that is Bharat
4. India and Bharat united
Q. 34 In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is-
1. to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
2. to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
3. to let opposition members, collect information from the ministers
4. to postpone proceedings to check the inappropriate/violent behaviour on the part of some members
Q. 35 What will come in the place of question mark (?) in following questions.
Q. 36 This question is
based on the following five numbers:
196 615 254
431 329
What is the difference between
3rd digit of 3rd number from left end and 2nd digit of 2nd number from right
end?
1. 4
2. 1
3. 3
4. 2
Q. 37 Simplify the following question and find the value of question mark (?).
53 × 48 - ? = 29 × 70
1. 504
2. 524
3. 514
4. 512
(Instructions for Q. 38-39) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Point Q is 10m to the south of point P. Point R is 15m to
the east of point P. Point S is 20m to the north of point R. Point T is 30m to
the west of point Q.
Q. 38 Point R is in which direction with respect to point
Q?
1. North-east
2. South-east
3. North-west
4. South-west
Q. 39 What is the shortest distance between point P and point
S?
1. 10m
2. 30m
3. 25m
4. 15m
Q. 40 Find the average of first six multiples of 5.
1. 16.50
2. 17.05
3. 17.50
4. 19.50
Q. 41 One card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card drawn is either a red card or a jack?
1. 15/26
2. 5/8
3. 7/13
4. 1/2
Q. 42 The 274th report of Law Commission of India deals with-
1. Electoral Reforms
2. Wrongful Prosecution
3. Review of Contempt of Courts Act
4. Human DNA Profiling
Q. 43 Which of the following statement best explains the phrase ‘Devil’s Advocate’?
1. Expressing discontentment
2. Arguing for the sake of argument
3. Expressing contentious opinion
4. Arguing for the guilty
Q. 44 Transfer of Judges from one High Court to another High Court is made by-
1. the President after consultations with the Council of Ministers.
2. the President after consultations with the Governor of the concerned state.
3. the President after consultations with the Chief Justice of India.
4. the President after consultations with the Chief Justice of concerned High Court.
Q. 45 What kind of damages are available for breach of contract?
1. Liquidated Damages
2. Unliquidated Damages
3. Vindictive Damages
4. All of the above
Q. 46 An order passed under Section 144 of the IPC, cannot remain in force for more than-
1. 15 days from the date of the order
2. 1 month from the date of the order
3. 2 months from the date of the order
4. 6 months from the date of the order
Q. 47 "WATER" is a subject mentioned in which of the following lists, under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India?
1. Union List
2. State List
3. Concurrent List
4. Residuary Powers
Q. 48 ‘Sagotra marriage’ in Hindu Law is-
1. Legal
2. Illegal
3. Permitted with the consent of Khap Panchayat
4. Permitted with the consent of parents
Q. 49 The negligence of a medical practitioner resulted in the loss to a patient. The patient wants to seek compensation from the doctor. He can approach-
1. Civil Court
2. Criminal Court
3. Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum
4. Either 1 or 3
Q. 50 ‘A’ agrees to pay Rs.2000 to ‘B’ if India wins today, ‘B’ will pay him Rs.2000 if India does not win. Which kind of agreement is this?
1. Contingent Agreement
2. Wagering Agreement
3. Voidable Agreement
4. None of the above
Q. 51 ‘Prima facie’ means
1. Beside the face of it
2. Behind the face of it
3. On the face of it
4. At first face/first appearance
Q. 52 Which of the following is an inchoate crime?
1. Public nuisance
2. Culpable homicide
3. Riot
4. Criminal attempt
Q. 53 What does the legal maxim "lex est norma recti" mean?
1. Law rules the rights
2. Law is a rule of State
3. Law is a rule of right
4. Law follows equity
Q. 54 A person is said to be vicariously liable when:
1. He is liable for his wrongful acts.
2. He is not liable even though he has committed wrongful acts.
3. He is liable for the wrongful acts of others.
4. He is liable though no wrongful act has been done.
Q. 55 'Frustration of contract' means-
1. Performance of contract becomes afterward impossible because of inaction of promiser
2. Performance of contract becomes afterward impossible or unlawful for no fault of promiser
3. Performance of contract becomes difficult
4. Performance of contract becomes voidable
Q. 56 A contract of insurance is a-
1. Contract of guarantee
2. Contract of agency
3. Contract of indemnity
4. All of the above
Q. 57 Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
1. A person cannot be prosecuted and punished simultaneously for the same offence.
2. A person accused of an offence can be compelled to be a witness against himself
3. Retrospective amendment to civil & criminal law cannot be made in any case to punish an offender.
4. All are correct.
Q. 58 Forming a Cooperative Society is a -
1. Constitutional Right
2. Fundamental Right
3. Statutory Right
4. It is not a right yet recognised
Q. 59 Which of the following was the main criminal code that was applied in the Indian state of Jammu and Kashmir?
1. Randhir Penal Code
2. Ranbir Penal Code
3. Indian Penal Code
4. Ransingh Penal Code
Q. 60 The essential characteristic of a tort is, violation of:
1. A Contractual right
2. Right in personam (a right available only against some determinate person or property)
3. Right in rem (a right vested in some determinate person and available against the world at large)
4. All of these
Q. 61 Which of the following acts is popularly known as the ''Sarda Act'', often seen in news these days?
1. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012
2. The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006
3. The Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929
4. Red Cross Society (Allocation of Property) Act, 1936
Q. 62 "KOTHARI COMMISSION" is related to reforms in -
1. Education
2. Criminal Law
3. Civil Services
4. Labour Welfare
Q. 63 Proceedings of the Supreme Court of India are to be in ________ language(s) only.
1. English
2. Hindi
3. English and Hindi
4. English or Hindi
Q. 64 Opinion of the elderly persons in the society is-
1. Inadmissible in evidence being hearsay
2. Admissible to prove general conduct and character of the parties
3. Inadmissible as their opinion is irrelevant
4. Admissible to prove general custom or right
Q.65 Under the doctrine of 'ADVERSE POSSESSION', a person who is not the original owner of the property becomes the owner if he has been in possession of the property for a minimum of?
1. 10 years
2. 12 years
3. 15 years
4. 20 years
Q.66 'Fast Track Special Courts' are courts designated for?
1. Special cases pertaining to matters of national importance.
2. Special cases under the pendency for which adjudication is needed in time.
3. Special cases of heinous crimes like brutal rapes and crimes against children invoking POSCO Act.
4. All of the above
Q.67 Punishment for defamation is defined in which section of the Indian Penal Code (IPC)?
1. Section 499
2. Section 500
3. Section 399
4. Section 462
Q.68 Which of the following is not placed at Hague, Netherlands?
1. International Court of Justice
2. Permanent Court of Arbitration
3. International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea
4. International Criminal Court
Q. 69 What was the full case name of the Ayodhya dispute in which Supreme Court gave the final judgement on 9 November, 2019?
1. Nirmohi Akhara v. Allahabad High Court
2. M Siddiq (D) Thr Lrs v. Mahant Gopal Singh & Ors
3. Nirmohi Akhara v. Sunni Waqf Board
4. M Siddiq (D) Thr Lrs v. Mahant Suresh Das & Ors
Q. 70 Which of the following does not fall within the meaning of the 'State' under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution?
1. High Court
2. District Boards
3. Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
4. Panchayats
Q. 71 In which of the following cases Supreme Court held that Chief Justice of India is a public authority and falls within the ambit RTI?
1. Common Cause v. Union of India
2. Central Public Information Officer, Supreme Court v. Subhash Chandra Agrawal
3. Indian Young Lawyers Association v. UOI
4. Supreme Court Advocates-On-Record Association v. UOI
Q. 72 Which of the following is the motto of the Supreme Court of India?
1. Satyamev Jayate - Truth only triumphs
2. Dharmo Rakshati Rakshitah - Justice, when protected, protects
3. Yogakshemam Vahamyaham - I shall take care of welfare
4. Yato Dharmastato Jayah - Where there is righteousness, there is victory
Q. 73 ‘Go for the jugular’ means-
1. Be aggressive in making an attack
2. To proceed instinctively according to the circumstances
3. To create a lot of trouble
4. To head straight towards something or someone
Q. 74 ‘Beating around the bush’ means
1. Going here and there to find something
2. Beating someone very badly who committed a crime
3. Complaining about a loss
4. Avoiding the main topic
Q. 75 Choose the correct spelling-
1. Catastrophy
2. Catestrophe
3. Catastrophe
4. Catastrophie
Q. 76 Choose the correct spelling-
1. Diarriea
2. Diarrhia
3. Diarrhiea
4. Diarrhoea
Q. 77 Which of the following statements is correct regarding Advocate General?
1. Advocate General of state is appointed by the President on recommendation of Governor of State.
2. Advocate General has right to take part in the proceedings of state legislature with a right to vote.
3. Advocate General of state is appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of state government.
4. Advocate General performs duty of a legal character which are referred to him by the state government.
Q. 78 Under the provisions of the Constitution of India, a community can be declared a minority on the basis of?
1. Religion only
2. Either Religion or Language
3. Either Religion or Language or Race
4. Either Religion or Language or Caste
Q. 79 'Amicus Curiae' means
1. A public prosecutor appointed by the Court to assist in litigation process.
2. An advocate who represents a party in the case free of cost.
3. An impartial advisor to the Court in a case.
4. An expert in a field who is to provide evidence in a case related to that field.
Q. 80 Who is the Director General of International Solar Alliance?
1. Purushottam Sharma
2. Upendra Tripathy
3. Satyarth Gupta
4. Mohd. Hassan
Q. 81 Who is the current Chairman of National Legal Services Authority of India (NALSA)?
1. Justice MR Shah
2. Justice NV Ramana
3. Justice Sharad Arvind Bobde
4. Justice Ranjan Gogoi
Q. 82 In which of the following cases, The Supreme Court approved the Witness Protection Scheme, 2018?
1. Mahender Chawla v. Union of India
2. Mahender Chawla v. Cental Bureau of Investigation
3. Central Vigilance Commission v. State of Gujarat
4. Indian Young Lawyers Association v. Union of India
Q. 83 Who is the Chief Justice of Delhi High Court?
1. Justice Dhirubhai Nanabhai Patel
2. Justice Prateek Jalan
3. Justice Rajendra Menon
4. Justice Ajit Prakash Shah
Q. 84 In which of the following cases Supreme Court held that 'RIGHT TO INTERNET' forms a part of freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)?
1 Common Cause v. Union of India
2. NALSA v. Union of India
3. Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India
4. Supreme Court Advocates-On-Record Association v. Union of India
Q. 85 The Supreme Court recognised 'trans genders as third gender with all rights' in the case of:
1. NALSA v. Union of India
2. Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
3. Joseph Shine v. Govt. of NCT (Delhi)
4. Naz Foundation v. Govt. of NCT (Delhi)
Q. 86 Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojna (PMSBY) an insurance scheme for -
1. Crop failure
2. Loss to MSMEs
3. Accident Insurance
4. Old aged people
Q. 87 Who authored the book ‘Bridgital Nation’?
1. Rahul Agarwal, Rupa Rai
2. Arundhati Roy, Amartya Sen
3. N. Chandrasekaran, Roopa Purushottam
4. Vikram Sampath, Satyarth Nayak
Q. 88 SARFAESI (Act) 2002, stands for-
1. Socialisation and Reestablishment of Financial Assets and Economic Securities Interest Act
2. Securitisation and Reestablishment of Financial Assets and Enabling Securities Income Act
3. Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Securities Interest Act
4. Securing and Reconstructing of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Securities Income Act
Q. 89 Which of the following cases is not correctly matched with their judgement years?
1. Shankari Prasad v. Union of India - 1951
2. Maneka Gandhi v. Union Of India - 1978
3. Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala - 1973
4. I C Golaknath v. State of Punjab - 1969
Q. 90 The Headquarter of United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund (UNICEF) is -
1. Washington D.C., USA
2. London, England
3. New York, USA
4. Geneva, Switzerland
Q. 91 Who is the MINISTER OF CONSUMER AFFAIRS, FOOD & PUBLIC DISTRIBUTION?
1. Sharad Pawar
2. Ram Vilas Paswan
3. Narendra Singh Tomar
4. Pralhad Joshi
Q. 92 Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding 'Overseas Citizen of India' (OCI)?
1. OCI Scheme was introduced by amending the Citizenship Act, 1955 in August 2005.
2. A registered OCI is granted multiple entry, multipurpose, life-long visa for visiting India.
3. OCI card holders do not enjoy fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution.
4. All are correct.
Q. 93 Ramon Magsaysay Award also known as Nobel Award of Asia is presented by which country -
1. Japan
2. Singapore
3. Philippines
4. China
Q. 94 “Dindigul Locks” which are known throughout the world for their superior quality and durability recently got GI Tag are related to which state -
1. Karnataka
2. Kerala
3. Tamil Nadu
4. Andhra Pradesh
Q. 95 A contracts to pay B Rs. 10,000 if B‟s house is burnt. Which kind of agreement is this?
1. Wagering Agreement
2. Void Agreement
3. Contingent Agreement
4. Voidable Agreement
Q. 96 Nobel Peace Prize 2019 was awarded to -
1. Nadiya Murad
2. Denis Mukwege
3. Malala Yousafzai
4. Abiy Ahmed
Q. 97 Two numbers are in the ratio of 7:13. If 6 is subtracted from the numbers, the ratio becomes 11:23. The numbers are:
1. 18,42
2. 12,28
3. 28,52
4. 35,66
Q. 98 Complete the series: BAY, EDV, HGS, KJP, ....
1. NMQ
2. NMO
3. NMP
4. NMM
Q. 99 RIGHT TO PROPERTY is a -
1. Fundamental Right
2. Constitutional Right
3. Legal Right
4. Natural Right
Q. 100 In a class of 45 students, one of the student ranks 20th. When two more students take admission, then his rank gets one place down. What is his position from the bottom?
1. 28
2. 26
3. 25
4. 27
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