DU LLB Question Paper 2019

 

 DUET-2019

(DELHI UNIVERSITY ENTRANCE TEST)

COURSE NAME- DU LLB

EXAM DATE 03-07-2019

 

1. Question given below has a set of three statements. Choose the alternative where the third statement can be logically deduced from both the preceding alternatives, but not just from one of them

 A: Few mathematicians are scientists. Some scientists play. Few Mathematicians play.

B: Rabbit is a flower. Some flowers are made of chromoplasts. Rabbit is made of chromoplast.

C: No elephant eats grass. All lions eat grass. No lions are elephant.

  

(a) A and C 

(b) A and C

(c) B only

(d) C only

Ans. (d) C only

 

2. Question given below has a set of three statements. Choose the alternative where the third statement can be logically deduced from both the preceding alternatives, but not just from one of them

 A: Many teachers are not readers. All singers are teachers. All singers are not readers.

B: Some giraffes are donkeys. Some giraffes are sheep. Some sheep are donkeys.

C: All locks are keys. Some keys do not open. Some locks do not open.

 

(a) A and C

(b) B and C

(c) B only

(d) C only

Ans. (d) C only

  

3. Directions  

 (i) A is older than S

(ii) M is older than A but younger than K

(iii) K is elder than S

(iv) S is younger than M

(v) G is the eldest

  

Who is the youngest?

(a) A 

(b) K

(c) M

(d) S

Ans. (d) S

 

4. Directions

 (i) A is older than S

(ii) M is older than A but younger than K

(iii) K is elder than S

(iv) S is younger than M

(v) G is the eldest

  

Age wise, who is in the middle?

 (a) A 

(b) K 

(c) M 

(d) S 

Ans. (c) M

 

 5. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. 

The sum of the incomes of U and V is more than that of X and Y taken together. The sum of the incomes of U and X is the same as that of V and Y taken together. Moreover, U earns half as much as the sum of the incomes of V and Y.

 Whose income is the highest?

 (a) U

(b) V

(c) X 

(d) Y

Ans. (b) V

 

6. Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. 

The sum of the incomes of U and V is more than that of X and Y taken together. The sum of the incomes of U and X is the same as that of V and Y taken together. Moreover, U earns half as much as the sum of the incomes of V and Y.

 Which statement is correct?

 (a) U earns equal to X

(b) U earns more than X

(c) V and Y together earn half of what X earns

(d) Y earns less than X

 Ans. (a) U earns equal to X 

 

7. Under Patent Act, 1970 Patent is granted for

 (a) 10 years,

(b) 15 years

(c) 20 years

(d) 5 years 

Ans. (c) 20 years

  

8. Under Trade Marks Act, 1999 the trademark is granted for

(a) 5 years, but may be renewed from time to time subject to the provisions of the Act

(b) 10 years, but may be renewed from time to time subject to the provisions of the Act

(c) 15 years, but may be renewed from time to time subject to the provisions of the Act

(d) 20 years, but may be renewed from time to time subject to the provisions of the Act

Ans. (b) 10 years, but may be renewed from time to time subject to the provisions of the Act  

 

9. World Intellectual Property Day is celebrated on:

(a) 21st June

(b) 23rd September

(c) 26th April

(d) 4th August

Ans. (c) 26th April

 

10. Clause (4) of Article 15 has been added to the Constitution of India by:

(a) The Constitution (First Amendment) Act

(b) The Constitution (Fourth Amendment) Act

(c) The Constitution (Sixth Amendment) Act

(d) The Constitution (Second Amendment) Act

Ans. (a) The Constitution (First Amendment) Act

 

 11. As per the Constitution of India the sovereignty of India lies with:

(a) The Constitution of India

(b) The Parliament of India

(c) The Supreme Court of India

(d) The People of India

Ans. (d) The People of India

 

12. Article 360 of Constitution of India has been invoked in India:

(a) Never invoked

(b) Once

(c) Thrice

(d) Twice

Ans. (a) Never invoked

 

13. Article 20 and Article 21 has been taken from the purview of Article 359 of the Constitution of India by

(a) The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act

(b) The Constitution (43rd Amendment) Act

(c) The Constitution (44th Amendment) Act

(d) The Constitution (59th Amendment) Act

Ans. (c) The Constitution (44th Amendment) Act

 

14. Representation of members in House of People in India is based on:

 (a) Area of the State

(b) Community

(c) Literacy of State

(d) Population

Ans. (d) Population

 

15. The writ of prohibition may be issued, when there is:

(a) An absence of jurisdiction or excess of jurisdiction

(b) Both An absence of jurisdiction or excess of jurisdiction & Violation of principles of natural justice

(c) Request to produce the body of the person

(d) Violation of principles of natural justice

Ans. (b) Both An absence of jurisdiction or excess of jurisdiction & Violation of principles of natural justice

 

16. Article 51A of the Constitution of India provides for the Fundamental Duties of:

(a) All those who run public and private sectors

(b) Citizens of India

(c) Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers

(d) Public Servants 

Ans. (b) Citizens of India

 

17. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a

 (a) Judicial power

(b) Legislative power

(c) Executive power

(d) Quasi-judicial power

Ans. (b) Legislative power

 

18. In which landmark judgment did the Supreme Court of India decriminalized homosexuality

(a) Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar, 1979

(b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, 1978

(c) Navtez Singh Johar v. Union of India, 2018

(d) Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa, 1993 

Ans. (c) Navtez Singh Johar v. Union of India, 2018

 

19. In which one of the following judgments the Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court of India, the 'rarest of rare' principle in the award of death penalty was first laid down?

(a) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980)

(b) Dr. Upendra Baxi v. State of UP (1983)

(c) Gopalanachari v. State of Kerala (1980)

(d) Tukaram v. State of Maharashtra (1979)

Ans. (a) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980)

 

20. How many times the President of India can seek re-election to his post?

(a) 2times

(b) 3times

(c) Any number of times

(d) Once

Ans. (c) Any number of times

 

21.  The President gives his resignation to the:

(a) Chief Justice

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(d) Vice President 

Ans. (d) Vice President

 

22. Which one of the following does not constitute the electoral college for electing the President of India?

(a) Elected members of Lok Sabha 

(b) Elected members of Rajya Sabha

(c) Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each state

(d) Elected members of the Legislative Council 

Ans. (d) Elected members of the Legislative Council

 

23. The charge of impeachment against the President of India for his removal can be preferred by

(a) Both Houses of Parliament

(b) Lok Sabha

(c) Rajya Sabha

(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha

Ans. (a) Both Houses of Parliament

 

24. Which of the following writs called bulwark of personal freedom?

(a) Certiorari

(b) Habeas Corpus

(c) Mandamus

(d) Quo Warranto

Ans. (b) Habeas Corpus

 

25. For the philosophy underlying our Constitution, the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ was moved in the Constituent Assembly on 13th December, 1946 by

(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(c) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Ans. (d) Jawaharlal Nehru

 

26. The Preamble of Indian Constitution envisages what kinds of justice Options:

(a) All of these

(b) Economic

(c) Political

(d) Social

 Ans. (a) All of these

 

27. In which year Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education, Act was enacted by Parliament of India?

(a) 2005

(b) 2007

(c) 2008

(d) 2009

Ans. (d) 2009

 

28. Which of the set is said to be the Golden triangle of Indian Constitution? Options:

(a) Article 14, 19 and 21

(b) Articles 14,15, and 16

(c) Articles 20, 21 and 22

(d) Preamble, Fundamental Right and Directive Principles

Ans. (a) Article 14, 19 and 21

 

29. Basic structure of Constitution can be amended:

(a) By 2/3rd majority

(b) By simple majority

(c) By special majority and ratification by half of states

(d) None of these 

Ans. (d) None of these

 

30. As per VII Schedule of the Constitution of India, the power to enact laws on residuary matters lies with

(a) None

(b) Parliament

(c) State legislature

(d) The President 

Ans. (b) Parliament

 

31. Sarkaria Commission was concerned with:

(a) Centre-State Relations

(b) Electoral Reforms

(c) Financial Reforms

(d) Judicial reforms

Ans. (a) Centre-State Relations

 

32. Who is equivalent of Attorney General in State?

(a) Advocate General

(b) Chief Minister

(c) Judge of the High Court

(d) None of these

Ans. (a) Advocate General

 

33. The name of the Union given in the Constitution is:

(a) Bharatdesh i.e. India

(b) Hindustan i.e. Bharatvarsha

(c) India i.e. Bharat

(d) India i.e. Hindustan

Ans. (c) India i.e. Bharat

 

34. Proceedings to be in camera means:

(a) None of these

(b) Proceedings in private

(c) Proceedings in public

(d) Proceedings recorded in camera 

Ans. (b) Proceedings in private

 

35. A watch reads 4:30. If the minute hand points towards north east, then the hour hand will point towards the:

(a) Northwest

(b) South west

(c) Southeast

(d) South

Question deleted.

 

36. X+Y > U+V and Y+U>X+V, then it is definite that:

(a) U>V

(b) V>Y

(c) X>V

(d) Y>V 

Ans. (d) Y>V

 

37. What is the product of all numbers in the dial of a telephone?

(a) 1,58,480

(b) 1,59,450

(c) 1,59,480

(d) None of these 

Ans. (d) None of these

  

38. Five people, A, C, D, F and G are sitting around a table. A is sitting to the left of G. One person is sitting between G and D. C is sitting to the left of A:

Choose the correct option:

(a) F is sitting between A and G

(b) F is sitting between C and D

(c) F is sitting between G and D

(d) F is sitting to the right of D

Ans. (c) F is sitting between G and D

 

39. One card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card drawn is either a black card or a queen?

(a) 1/2 ,

(c) 1/52

(c) 15/26

(d) 7/13 

Ans. (d) 7/13

 

40. Find the average of prime numbers between 20 and 50:

(a) 35.8

(b) 37.6

(c) 39.8

(d) 40.5 

Ans. (a) 35.8

 

41. The average of five consecutive numbers is 16. Find the smallest of these number

(a)  12

(b) 14

(c) 20

(d) 8 

 Ans. (b) 14

 

42. The 262nd Law Commission of India report deals with:

(a) 2015 Model Bilateral Investment Treaty

(b) Abolition of death penalty

(c) Amendment of Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996

(d) Electoral Reforms

Ans. (b) Abolition of death penalty

 

43. The principle of quantum meruit is applicable when:

(a) Both The contract is divisible, and some parts are performed and When the contract is indivisible and something in relation to contract is done

(b) When an act is done graciously

(c) When the contract is indivisible and something in relation to contract is done

(d) The contract is divisible, and some parts are performed

Question deleted. 

 

44. The President of the India can consult the Supreme Court of India:

(a) Against any decision taken by the Prime Minister and his council of ministers

(b) In order to do complete justice when a death penalty convict seeks clemency from the President

(c) To seek advice before he imposes emergency in any state

(d) When a question of law of public importance arises 

Ans. (d) When a question of law of public importance arises 

 

45. What kind of damages are available for breach of contract Options:

(a) All these

(b) Liquidated Damages

(c) Unliquidated Damages

(d) Vindictive Damages 

Ans. (b) Liquidated Damages

 

46. Fraud occurs when:

(a) Active concealment of facts

(b) An act is done with the intention to deceive another party

(c) Both an act is done with the intention to deceive another party & active concealment of facts

(d) None of these 

Ans. (c) Both an act is done with the intention to deceive another party & active concealment of facts

 

47. The three lists in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India represent:

(a) Doctrine of Cooperative Federalism

(b) Principle of Division of Power

(c) Principle of Separation of Power

(d) Rule against nonarbitrariness

Ans. (b) Principle of Division of Power

 

48. An agreement in restraint of marriage is:

(a) Illegal

(b) Valid

(c) Voidable

(d) Void

Ans. (d) Void

 

49. ‘A’ threatens his wife and son to commit suicide in case they did not execute a deed in his favour. This will amount to:

(a) Both the above

(b) Coercion

(c) None of the above

(d) Undue influence

Ans. (b) Coercion

 

50. ‘A’ agrees to sell his house to ‘B’, ‘A’ has two houses. The agreement is: 

(a) Both Void and Valid

(b) Valid

(c) Voidable

(d) Void

Ans. (d) Void

 

51. Non est factum means:

(a) It is not my deed

(b) Document executed under fraud

(c) Document executed under misrepresentation

(d) None of these

Ans. (a) It is not my deed

 

52. ‘A’ agrees to Pay ‘B’ Rupees 1000 if it rains today, ‘B’ will pay him Rupees 1000 if it does not rain. Which kind of agreement is this:

(a) Contingent Agreement

(b) None of the above

(c) Voidable Agreement

(d) Wagering Agreement 

Ans. (d) Wagering Agreement 

 

53. Caveat Venditor means:

 (a) Buyer beware

(b) Manufacturer beware

(c) None of these

(d) Seller beware

Ans. (d) Seller beware

 

54. In which of the cases the relationship of principal and agent exists:

(a) Both Relationship between partners & Relationship between employer and employee

(b) Relationship between employer and employee

(c) Relationship between husband and wife

(d) Relationship between partners

Ans. (a) Both Relationship between partners & Relationship between employer and employee

 

55. Capacity to contract relates to:

(a) Intention of the parties to enter into contract

(b) Age of parties to contract

(c) Competence of the parties to enter into contract

(d) None of these

Ans. (c) Competence of the parties to enter into contract

 

56. When both the parties are under a mistake of fact essential to the contract, the contract is

(a) Does not affect its validity

(b) None of these

(c) Voidable

(d) Void

Ans. (d) Void

 

57. The essential characteristic of a tort is, violation of:

(a) a contractual right

(b) none of these

(c) right in personam (a right available only against some determinate person or property)

(d) right in rem (a right vested in some determinate person and available against the world at large)

Ans. (d) right in rem (a right vested in some determinate person and available against the world at large)

 

58. The doctrine of ‘double jeopardy’ enshrined in Article 20 (2) means  

(a) no one can be prosecuted and punished more than once for the same offence

(b) one can be prosecuted more than once, but punished only once

(c) one can be prosecuted several times for the same offence

(d) punishment once awarded cannot be enhanced in appeal or revision

Ans. (a) no one can be prosecuted and punished more than once for the same offence

 

59. Under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 dislocation of tooth constitutes the offence of:

(a) Assault

(b) Grievous hurt

(c) None of these

(d) Simple hurt

Ans. (b) Grievous hurt

 

60. The term used to describe an accused who seeks pardon from the court by agreeing to testify against all others involved in the crime is :

(a) Accomplice

(b) Approver

(c) Hostile witness

(d) None of these

Ans. (b) Approver

 

61. A First Information Report (FIR) for a cognizable offence may be lodged by:  

(a) All of these

(b) Family member of the victim

(c) Police officer

(d) Victim

Ans. (a) All of these

 

62. Malimath Committee is associated with reforms in the field of:

(a) Labour Welfare

(b) Criminal Law

(c) Domestic relations

(d) Education

Ans. (b) Criminal Law

 

63. In taking and recording evidence, the language of every Court within the State other than the High Court shall be

 (a) Determined by the respective State Government

(b) English

(c) Hindi or English

(d) Hindi

Ans. (a) Determined by the respective State Government

 

64. The essentials of a valid custom are:

(a) All of these

(b) Antiquity

(c) Certainty

(d) Consistency

Ans. (a) All of these

 

65. The doctrine of ‘Transferred Malice’ is contained in which Section of the IPC, 1860?

(a) Section 149

(b) Section 301

(c) Section 304A

(d) Section 34

Ans. (b) Section 301

 

66. Which of the following is an inchoate crime? :

(a) Criminal attempt

(b) Culpable homicide

(c) Public nuisance

(d) Riot

Ans. (a) Criminal attempt

 

67. Theft and Extortion are listed under the IPC as offences against:

(a) All of these

(b) Body

(c) Property

(d) Public order and tranquillity

Ans. (c) Property

 

68. Which of the following is not an essential ingredient of Criminal Breach of Trust?

(a) Dishonest intention

(b) Entrustment

 (c) Misappropriation/ conversion

(d) Negligence

Ans. (d) Negligence

 

69. On 9th March 2018, a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court of India confirmed that the right to die with dignity is a fundamental right while allowing passive euthanasia and living will. This judgment is known as

(a) Common Cause v. UOI

(b) Justice KS Puttaswamy v. UOI

(c) P. Rathinam v. UOI

(d) Supreme Court AdvocatesOnRecord Association v. UOI

Ans. (a) Common Cause v. UOI

 

70. The word ‘plagiarist’ refers to a person who: 

(a) Is called by courts to give testimony in cases relating to fingerprints

(b) Uses language and thoughts of another author without authorization and the representation of that author's work as one's own, without crediting the original author

(c) Is a collector of old and antique stamps of different countries

(d) Is a professional boxer

Ans. (b) Uses language and thoughts of another author without authorization and the representation of that author's work as one's own, without crediting the original author

 

71. In which of the following cases was the judgment popularly known as Jallikattu verdict pronounced?

(a) Animal Welfare Board of India v. A. Nagaraja

(b) Federation of Indian Animal Protection Organisation v. UOI

(c) Gauri Maulekhi v. UOI

(d) Nair, NR and others v. UOI

Ans. (a) Animal Welfare Board of India v. A. Nagaraja

 

72. Abhiram Singh v. CD Commachen (2017) is a judgment of the Supreme Court dealing with which of the following issues?

(a) Compensation to Uphaar tragedy victims

(b) Linkage of IT returns with Aadhaar

(c) Proper and adequate access to public places for visually disabled persons

(d) Seeking votes in the name of religion amounts to a corrupt practice

Ans. (d) Seeking votes in the name of religion amounts to a corrupt practice

 

73. Flog a dead horse means:

(a) Cruelty to animals

(b) To beat a horse to death

(c) To try to get work out of someone who is already exhausted

(d) Waste effort on something when there is no chance of succeeding

Ans. (d) Waste effort on something when there is no chance of succeeding

 

74. ‘Achilles heel’ means:

(a) a food disease

(b) a kind of fungus

(c) a painful spot

(d) a weak point

Ans. (d) a weak point

 

75. Choose the correct spelling:

(a) Connoissuer

(b) Connoiseur

(c) Connoisseur

(d) Conoissuer

Ans. (c) Connoisseur

 

76. Choose the correct spelling:

(a) surveillance

(b) surveilance

(c) surveilence

(d) survellience

 Ans. (a) surveillance

 

77. What do you mean by “candidate losing the deposit” after the poll result is announced?

(a) A defeated candidate who fails to secure minimum 600 valid votes polled in the constituency will lose his security deposit

(b) A defeated candidate who fails to secure more than one fourth of the valid votes polled in the constituency will lose his security deposit

(c) A defeated candidate who fails to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency will lose his security deposit

(d) A defeated candidate who fails to secure more than one third of the valid votes polled in the constituency will lose his security deposit 

Ans. (c) A defeated candidate who fails to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency will lose his security deposit

 

78. The antidefection law in India is contained in:

(a) The IV Schedule of the Constitution of India

(b) The IX Schedule of the Constitution of India

(c) The VII Schedule of the Constitution of India

(d) The X Schedule of the Constitution of India

Ans. (d) The X Schedule of the Constitution of India

 

79. The electoral college that elects the Vice President of India comprises of:

(a) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils

(b) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies

(c) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament

(d) Members of both Houses of Parliament

Ans. (d) Members of both Houses of Parliament

 

80. Who among the following is famous for Bharatnatyam:

(a) Birju Maharaj

(b) Madhavi Mudgal

(c) Sonal Mansingh

(d) Yamini Krishnamurti

Ans. (d) Yamini Krishnamurti 

 

81. Who among the following is the First Iraqi National to have received the Nobel Peace Prize?

(a) Jenna Krajeski

(b) Nadia Murad Basee Taha

(c) Najiba Ahmed

(d) Reem Alasadi

 Ans. (b) Nadia Murad Basee Taha

 

82. Which of the following is correct?

(a) Both FIFA, 2014 Brazil, FIFA, 2018 Russia & FIFA, 2022 Qatar & FIFA, 2010

(b) South Africa, FIFA, 2018 Russia & FIFA, 2022 Qatar

(c) FIFA, 2010 South Africa, FIFA, 2018 Russia & FIFA, 2022 Qatar

 (d) FIFA, 2014 Brazil, FIFA, 2018 Russia & FIFA, 2022 Qatar

Ans. (a) Both FIFA, 2014 Brazil, FIFA, 2018 Russia & FIFA, 2022 Qatar & FIFA, 2010

83. Bt. in ‘Bt. Brinjal’ is:

(a) Antibiotic

(b) Bacterium

(c) None of these

(d) Virus

Ans. (b) Bacterium 

 

84. Who authored the book ‘Indian Philosophy’?

(a) Charles Dickens

(b) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

(c) Shashi Tharoor

(d) William Shakespeare

Ans. (b) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

 

85. Who is the Director General of International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)?

(a) Luther Rangreji

(b) Mahmoud Mekki

(c) Mohamed Elbardei

(d) Yukia Amano

Ans. (d) Yukia Amano

 

86. A general offer is an offer which:

(a) Can be accepted by anyone

(b) Cannot be termed as a contract

(c) Contains all the essentials of a valid contract

(d) None of these

Ans. (a) Can be accepted by anyone

 

87. Who is the first Indian woman appointed as Judge of ITLOS (International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea)

(a) Flavia Agne

(b) Indira Banerjee

(c) Neeru Chadha

(d) Ruma Pal

Ans. (c) Neeru Chadha

 

88. ‘Proper respect is shown to National Anthem by standing up when the National Anthem is sung. It will not be right to say that disrespect is shown by not joining in the singing.’ It has been held in:

(a) Bijoi Emmanuel v. State of Kerala

(b) Keshavananda Bharati v. U.O.I.

(c) Ram JawayaKapur v. U.O.I.

(d) Surya Narain v. U.O.I.

Ans. (a) Bijoi Emmanuel v. State of Kerala

 

89. Two young persons, A & B fight with each other. A was having a blade with which ‘A’ inflicts injury on the face of B leaving a scar on the cheek of B. A is guilty of offence of causing

(a) grievous hurt by rash or negligent act

(b) grievous hurt

(c) simple hurt by rash or negligent act

(d) simple hurt

Question deleted. 

 

90. The right to protect one’s own person and property against the unlawful aggression of others is known as:

(a) an act done by the consent of the other

(b) none of these

(c) the right of private defence

(d) volenti non fit injuria

Ans. (c) the right of private defence

 

91. The first Constitutional Amendment was challenged in the case:

(a) both Sankari Prasad v. UOI & Sankari Prasad v. UOI

(b) none of these

(c) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan

(d) Sankari Prasad v. UOI

Ans.  (a) both Sankari Prasad v. UOI & Sankari Prasad v. UOI, (d) Sankari Prasad v. UOI

  

92. Which of the following are included as fundamental duties under Constitution of India?

  I. to abide by the Constitution and respect for its ideals and institutions

 II. to uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India

III. to ensure the rule of law in the country

IV. to safeguard public property and to abjure violence

(a) I,II,III,IV

(b) I,II,III

(c) I,II,IV

(d) I,III,IV

Ans. (c) I,II,IV

 

93. General exceptions are laid down in the Indian Penal Code in:

(a) Chapter IV and VI

(b) Chapter IV

(c) Chapter VI

(d) Chapter VIII

Ans. (b) Chapter IV

 

94. The Right of private defence of the body extends to the voluntarily causing of death, if the offence which occasions the exercise of right is

(a) an assault reasonably causing an apprehension that simple injury will be caused

(b) an assault with intention of escaping with stolen property immediately after the theft

(c) an assault with the intention of kidnapping or abducting

(d) of arresting a person who is running away after having committed an offence of voluntarily causing hurt

Ans. (c) an assault with the intention of kidnapping or abducting

 

95. ‘A’, a person of unsound mind, attempts to kill ‘B’. ‘B’ hits ‘A’ with an iron rod seriously injuring him.

(a) ‘B’ has no right of private defense since ‘A’ is a person of unsound mind

(b) ‘B’ has right of private defense though ‘A’ is a person of unsound mind

(c) ‘B’ is guilty of inflicting grievous injury on ‘A’

(d) None of these

Ans. (b) ‘B’ has right of private defense though ‘A’ is a person of unsound mind

 

96. Which of the following laws has not been amended by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018? 

(a) Criminal Procedure Code, 1973

(b) Indian Penal Code, 1860

(c) Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act (POCSO), 2012

(d) Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013

Ans. (d) Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013

 

97. ‘Z’ takes away a golden chain of his wife which was given by her father as Stridhan, without her consent, and gifts it to his girlfriend. ‘Z’ is guilty of

(a) not guilty of theft as the chain was their joint property

(b) not guilty of theft as the property was temporarily taken away

(c) guilty of criminal misappropriation

(d) guilty of theft

Ans. (d) guilty of theft

 

98.  In the year 2002 the Competition Act was enacted. This Act replaces :

(a) Consumer Protection Act, 1986

(b) Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969

(c) Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988

(d) Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 

Ans. (b) Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969

 

99.

 

(a) N

(b) L

(c) P

(d) T

Ans. (d) T

  

100.

 (a) V

(b) W

(c) X

(d) Y

Ans. (b) W

 

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