**DU LLB Entrance Exam-2021**
Q. 1 If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules of the Constitution must be amended?
- 1. Schedule II
- 2. Schedule I
- 3. Schedule IX
- 4. Schedule VII
Schedules are lists in the constitution which categorise and tabulate the repeating provisions for the ease and convenience of legislative and administrative purposes. Originally our Constitution contained total 8 Schedules. With the amendments, the number increased to 12.
Q. 2 The articles of Constitution of India are grouped into how many parts?
- 1. 22 Parts
- 2. 23 Parts
- 3. 24 Parts
- 4. 25 Parts
At present the articles are grouped into 25 Parts. Originally, when the Constitution was adopted in 1949, it contained 395 Articles which were divided into 22 Parts. The various amendments carried out since then have deleted about 20 Articles and one Part (VII) and added about 90 Articles, four Parts (IVA, IXA, IXB and XIVA) and four Schedules.
Presently, it consists of about 465 Articles which are divided into 25 Parts, and 12 Schedules. (Refer Pg. 3.1 M. Laxmikanth 5th edition)
Q. 3 A parliamentary system of government is one in which:
- 1. All political parties in the Parliament are represented by the Government.
- 2. The Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it.
- 3. The Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them.
- 4. The Govt. is chosen by the Parliament but can't be removed by it before completion of fixed term.
The most essential feature of a Parliamentary System of Government is the Executive’s responsibility to the Legislature.
Option 1, it is not essential on the Government's part to include members of all the political parties in the cabinet.
Option 3, there is no such procedure where Government can be removed directly by the people. Option 4, Government can be removed by the Parliament by the way of no-confidence motion even before the completion of its fixed term.
Q. 4 'Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug v. Union of India' case is related to-
- 1. Protection of environment
- 2. Right to livelihood
- 3. Euthanasia
- 4. Sexual harassment at workplace
After being sexually assaulted in 1973, Aruna Shanbaug remained in a vegetative state for 37 years till 2011, the time when the Supreme Court responded to a plea for euthanasia and for setting up a medical panel to examine her. The court rejected the petition on 7th March 2011.
However, the Supreme Court recognised passive euthanasia in this case by which it had permitted withdrawal of life-sustaining treatment from patients not in a position to make an informed decision.
Q. 5 Which show has won the Best Drama Series award at the 48th International Emmy Awards 2020?
- 1. Criminal Justice
- 2. Paatal Lok
- 3. Your Honor
- 4. Delhi Crime
The Netflix show, Delhi Crime became the first Indian web-series to win the International Emmy Award (at 48th International Emmy Awards ceremony that was held virtually on November 23).
In the series, Shefali Shah plays the role of a DCP, who is tasked with finding the culprits of the
horrific 2012 Delhi gang-rape and murder. (Indeed, it's a must watch web-series.)
Q. 6 National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a-
- 1. Statutory body
- 2. Constitutional body
- 3. Non-statutory body
- 4. Judicial body
NHRC is a Statutory public body constituted on 12th October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Ordinance. It was given a statutory basis by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 (PHRA).
The NHRC is responsible for the protection and promotion of human rights, defined by the Act as 'Rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity' of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution.
Q. 7 Which European power arrived earliest in India?
- 1. English
- 2. Portuguese
- 3. Dutch
- 4. French
The chronology of these European powers arriving in India: The Portuguese arrived earliest, then the Dutch, then English or British and then the French.
Q. 8 Which among the following words has been chosen as the Cambridge Dictionary Word of the Year 2020?
- 1. Quarantine
- 2. Lockdown
- 3. Vaccine
- 4. Frontline-warriors
Quarantine has been chosen as the Cambridge Dictionary Word of the Year 2020.
Whereas, the Oxford English Dictionary has chosen not to name a word of the year, describing 2020 as “a year which cannot be neatly accommodated in one single word”.
Q. 9 The original constitution contained which of the following provision(s)?
- 1. Schedule IX
- 2. Fundamental Duties
- 3. Right to Education
- 4. None of these
Schedule IX became a part of the Constitution by the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951.
Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
Right to Education as a fundamental right was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
Q. 10 Under the Seventh Schedule, 'Agriculture' is a subject mentioned in which of the following lists?
- 1. List I- Union List
- 2. List II- State List
- 3. List III- Concurrent List
- 4. Residuary Powers
'Agriculture' is included in the entry no. 14 of the List II- State List. See the Seventh Schedule here.
Q. 11 Reorganisation of Jammu & Kashmir was done under which Article of the Constitution of India?
- 1. Article 1
- 2. Article 2
- 3. Article 3
- 4. Article 4
Part I (The Union and its territory) of the constitution covers Articles 1 to 4.
Article 1 deals with the 'name and territory of the Union', i.e. India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.
Article 2 states that the Parliament may, by law, admit new states into the Union of India or establish new states on terms and conditions it deems fit.
Q. 12 Which part of the Constitution is described as 'magna carta' of India?
- 1. Part II
- 2. Part IV
- 3. Part III
- 4. Part IVA
‘Magna Carta’ is the Charter of Rights issued by King John of England in 1215 under pressure from the barons. This is the first written document relating to the Fundamental Rights of citizens.
Part III of the Constitution is rightly described as the Magna Carta of India. It contains a very long and comprehensive list of ‘justiciable’ Fundamental Rights.
Q. 13 When the 'Constituent Assembly' met as a legislative body it was chaired by-
- 1. GV Mavalankar
- 2. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
- 3. Acharya Kripalani
- 4. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Q. 14 Partition plan also known as the 'Mountbatten Plan' was announced on-
- 1. July 3rd, 1947
- 2. January 25th, 1947
- 3. August 14th, 1947
- 4. June 3rd, 1947
On June 3rd, 1947, Lord Mountbatten, the Viceroy of India, put forth the partition plan also known as the 'Mountbatten Plan'. The plan was accepted by the Congress and the Muslim League. Immediate effect was given to the plan by enacting the Indian Independence Act, 1947.
Q. 15 Which of the following acts abolished the East India Company and transferred the powers of government to the British crown?
- 1. Government of India Act, 1858
- 2. Charter Act, 1853
- 3. Government of India Act, 1919
- 4. Regulating Act, 1773
Q. 16 Poona Pact, signed in 1932 was signed between Gandhiji and ______?
- 1. Jawaharlal Nehru
- 2. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
- 3. EV Ramasamy
- 4. Muhammad Ali Jinnah
Q. 17 Repo rate is the rate at which-
- 1. RBI lends money to commercial banks
- 2. RBI borrows funds from the commercial banks
- 3. Rate of deposits that a bank has to maintain in the form of liquid cash
- 4. RBI lends money to financial institutions
Repo Rate- The rate at which the central bank of a country (RBI in case of India) lends money to commercial banks in the event of any shortfall of funds.
Reverse Repo Rate- It is the rate at which the RBI borrows money from banks when there is excess liquidity in the market.
Q. 18 'Gadgil committee' and 'Kasturirangan committee' were constituted to find a strategy for conserving-
- 1. Eastern Ghats
- 2. Himalayas
- 3. Western Ghats
- 4. Coral reefs
Gadgil Commission, an environmental research commission was named after its chairman Madhav Gadgil. The commission is formally known as Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP). The commission submitted the report to the Government of India on 31 August 2011.
The Kasturirangan Committee was constituted to examine the WGEEP report.
Q. 19 The 44th Amendment of the Constitution speaks of the-
- 1. Right to property as no longer a Fundamental right.
- 2. Suspension of individual liberty during emergency.
- 3. Barring the courts from interfering in the disputes regarding the election of Prime Minister.
- 4. Giving more importance to Directive Principles overs Fundamental Rights.
In 1978, the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act was passed by the then ruling Janata Party. This act (also) nullified various provisions that were brought into our Constitution as new articles or as amendments by the 42nd Amendment Act (passed by the Indira Gandhi regime).
In addition to other important amendments, the Act also repealed the Right to Property which was accorded to every citizen in Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31.
Q. 20 The Preamble to the Constitution of India is-
- 1. A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
- 2. Not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
- 3. A part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
- 4. A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts
Preamble is a part of the Constitution (Keshavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala, 1973) but has no legal effect. It is not enforceable in a court of law ‘on its own’, but it is used as a key to open up the minds of the makers of the Constitution, especially to ‘aid the legal interpretation’ where the language is ‘ambiguous’.
Q. 21 India is a Republican State. It means-
- 1. India is a union of states.
- 2. India has parliamentary system of government.
- 3. People have final authority in all the matters.
- 4. The head of the State is not hereditary.
Republic, a form of government in which a state is ruled by representatives of the citizen body. The term 'republic' is also applied to any form of government in which the head of state is not hereditary monarch.
Q. 22 'Provincial Constitution Committee' of the Constituent Assembly was headed by-
- 1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
- 2. Jawaharlal Nehru
- 3. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
- 4. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Major Committees of the Constituent Assembly-
1. Drafting Committee - Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Q. 23 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1. The Constitution defined its 'basic structure’ in terms of democracy, federalism and secularism.
- 2. The Constitution provides for Judicial Review to safeguard the ideals on which it is based.
- 3. Both 1 and 2
- 4. Neither 1 or 2
Statement 1 is INCORRECT. The Constitution has not defined ‘basic structure’ anywhere. It was a judicial innovation in the case of Keshavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala, 1973.
Article 13 prohibits the Parliament and the state legislatures from making laws that may take away or abridge the fundamental rights guaranteed to the citizens and ensures the protection of the fundamental rights and consider any law inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights, as void.
Q. 24 'Defamation' is punishable as-
- 1. A Civil wrong.
- 2. A Criminal wrong.
- 3. Both as a Civil wrong as well as a Crime.
- 4. None of these.
In Civil Law, 'Defamation' falls under the Law of Torts, which imposes punishment in the form of damages awarded to the claimant (person who files the claim).
In Criminal Law, Section 499 and Section 500 of The Indian Penal Code define 'defamation' and 'punishment for defamation' respectively.
(Option 1 should easily get eliminated as in the 'Planner 2021' itself under the important topics heading, 'Defamation' has been mentioned in the IPC, hence makes it a criminal offence too. Do inculcate this kind of elimination methods.)
Q. 25 Mr. X and Mr. Y entered into a house to commit theft, while committing theft Mr. Y committed sexual assault on a minor girl. Identify for which of the following offences Mr. X is liable for-
- 1. Only Theft as there was a similar intention.
- 2. Only Theft as Mr. X had a different intention from Y.
- 3. Both Theft and Sexual Assault as there was a Common intention.
- 4. He will not be liable for any offence.
Mr.X is liable only for theft as the common intention was of theft, not the sexual assault.
Read this also -
DU LLB Planner 2021 - https://www.thelegalbaba.com/2020/12/planner-2021-du-llb.html
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